On 16 April 2015 at 07:42, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:

>  On 4/15/2015 12:58 AM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 14 April 2015 at 14:05, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>
>> On 4/13/2015 4:35 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:
>>
>>> LizR wrote:
>>>
>>>> On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett <bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
>>>> <mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>     The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of the
>>>>     measurement operator has certain coefficients. The probabilities are
>>>>     the absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born Rule. MWI
>>>>     advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they have
>>>>     failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has been
>>>>     pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required before
>>>>     you can derive a probability measure already assume the Born Rule.
>>>>     The argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.
>>>>
>>>> In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed out
>>>> that the MWI lead to the following situation - if you throw a dice you have
>>>> 6 outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. But a loaded dice should favour (say) the
>>>> branch where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI doesn't work.
>>>>
>>>> My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several decades ago
>>>> now) was that you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes - like derivations of
>>>> the second law of thermodynamics, Niven's description of the system relies
>>>> on microstates being indistinguishable /to us/. But once you take this into
>>>> account there are more microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - and hence a
>>>> lot more than 6 branches - the MWI again makes sense using branch counting,
>>>> at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have known terms like microstates
>>>> at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but that was basically what I
>>>> thought).
>>>>
>>>
>>> I do not think that classical analogies can ever get to the heart of
>>> quantum probabilities.
>>>
>>>  Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential requirement
>>>> is that any quantum event leads to results which can be assigned a rational
>>>> number, rather than an irrational one. This gives us a finite number of
>>>> branches, and counting to get the probability. Or do quantum events lead to
>>>> results with irrational numbered probabilities?
>>>>
>>>
>>> Quantum probabilities are not required to be rational: any real value
>>> between 0 and 1 is possible. For example, if you prepare a Silver atom in a
>>> spin up state then pass it through another S-G magnet oriented at an angle
>>> alpha to the original, the probability that the atom will pass the second
>>> magnet in the up channel is cos^2(alpha/2). This can take on any real value
>>> in the range.
>>>
>>
>>  One argument against branch counting is that if you have two equally
>> likely outcomes (which can be judged by symmetry) there are two branches;
>> but if a small perturbation is added then there must be many branches to
>> achieve probabilities (0.5-epsilon) and (0.5+epsilon) and the smaller the
>> perturbation the larger the number required.  Of course the number required
>> is bounded by our ability to resolve small differences in probability, but
>> in principle it goes as 1/epsilon.
>>
>> I think Bruno's answer to this is that for every such experiment there
>> are arbitrarily many threads of the UD going throught at experiment and
>> this provides the order 1/epsilon ensemble.  But this somewhat begs the
>> question of why we should consider the probabilities of all those threads
>> to be equal since we have lost the justification of symmetry.  I think this
>> is "the measure problem".
>>
>
>  I believe it's an open question as to whether these systems (angle of
> rotation of a magnet for example) are continuous or quantised. If quantised
> then there are merely a (perhaps) very large number of branches but no
> measure problem.
>
>
> I'm quite willing to say that there can only be finite precision in any
> physical measurement, so the measurements are effectively quantized even if
> the theory is built on real numbers.  But I don't think that solves the
> measurement problem.  It doesn't justify considering all the possible
> values equi-probable; that requires some symmetry principle.
>

That wasn't quite what I meant. If the situation is quantised and there is
a rational number for each probability then we might for example have a
probability of 12345 / 67890 for a given event "A" (one of two
possibilities). This requires (somewhat weirdly, but the logic is OK) that
there are 12345 branches in which event A happens, and 67890 - 12345 in
which event B happens. All branches are equiprobable, which was my key
point.

PS I admit this is horrible, as stated! But if all events emerge as
macroscopically similar but microscopically distinct, it does at least make
sense and avoid the measure-on-infinity problem.

PPS see Russell's reply for a different take on this (which I don't quite
get, as yet).

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