@ Bruno

>> Not at all. And John Calrk agrees with what I will say here. personal 
>> identity is not a Leibnizian notion.

You need to focus on what these factors govern:

1) international tariffs.

2) the state of the chinese economy.

3) international demand for tea grown in china.


btw. I wasn't talking about Leibnizinan notions of identity. If you were 
committed to that you wouldn't be you, let alone H, W or M, one moment to the 
next. Even I don't think your metaphysics is that silly.

I can give you arguments but I can't understand them for you. You have to do 
that bit. I don't think you'll ever fix step 3 unless you try a bit harder.

From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: A riddle for John Clark
Date: Mon, 27 Jul 2015 18:45:40 +0200


On 27 Jul 2015, at 05:04, chris peck wrote:@ Bruno

[John]  >> >> Bruno Marchal​ is correct, that is not ambiguous, ​that is a flat 
out logical contradiction.


[Bruno] >> Where? 

The problem arises because if "You" = "person who remembers Helsinki" then you 
ought to be able replace one for the other without truth values altering. Thats 
just logic 101.

Not at all. And John Calrk agrees with what I will say here. personal identity 
is not a Leibnizian notion.That is why in the math we wuse modal logic, which 
is not Leibnizian. Let  "Arthur believe p" be []p
zeta(2) = pi^2 / 6 entails zeta(2) is irrationaL IFF pi^2 / 6 is irrational, 
but [](zetat(2) is irrational) is not entailed by [](pi^2 / 6 is irrational.
In intensional context, the Leibniz identity rule (two quantities equal to a 
same third one are equal) is no more true.
John agrees with this, and he agrees explicitly on the fact that the M guy and 
the H guy are the H guy, despite the M guy and the W guy are different guy. 
Nothing weird here: personal identity is a modal or intensional notion. The 
math exemplifies this in all details, and all this ultimately related to pure 
simple extensional relation between numbers.





But, according to you one of these two phrases is false:

"{You} will see only one city" <--- true according to Bruno.

"{person who remembers Helsinki} will see only one city". <--- false according 
to Bruno.

No. I have never said that. All I say is that in Helsinki, i expect myself to 
have the unique experience of being in a unique city. The problem is not in the 
pronom, but in the undersanding that the question bears on first person 
experiences, and not on third person localization of the experience.





Since all you have done is replace one phrase for another you have to accept 
that those phrases mean something different, otherwise where does the 
difference in truth value come from?  
Well, in modal context, it is doubly grave to not quote the chole context. I 
never say what you, perhaps John, attriubute to me here, but even if I said, it 
we are in a modal, intensional context, where John and me agree that we cannot 
use the Leibniz identity rule.



"you" can not equal "person who remembers Helsinki", otherwise you are 
contradicting yourself. You are saying it is true and false that "you will see 
only one city". 

You will see two cities. That is true for the third person points of view.
You will see only one city. That is true as a prediction of the subjective, 
first person, experience. 




This has nothing to do with 1-p, 3-p, p-p confusions

It has everything to do with 1p and 3p pov, as I just illustrated above. That's 
obvious as the question is about what you expect to live from the first person 
point of view, and you don't expect to have the experience of being in W and in 
M, but, as we assume comp, you expect to live with certainty in either W or in 
M (as both copies confirms after).



 but is a direct consequence of how you define your terms, Bruno.

Sorry, but you just illustrate well that your and Clark's misunderstanding 
comes from the 1p and 3p confusion.
The John Clark in Washington cannot deny he is the one having the experience to 
live Washington and not in Moscow.The John Clark in Moscow cannot deny he is 
the one having the experience to live Moscow and not in Washington.
Both admits that the duplication has introduced an asymmetry, and that they 
each got one bit of information.
Bruno




From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: A riddle for John Clark
Date: Fri, 24 Jul 2015 19:52:22 +0200


On 24 Jul 2015, at 19:03, John Clark wrote:On Fri, Jul 24, 2015 at 1:11 AM, 
Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be> wrote:

​​>> ​Yes, after the duplication but before the door of the duplicating chamber 
​is opened John Clark may have a hunch that he (at this point the personal 
pronoun is not ambiguous because although there are 2 bodies they are identical 
so there is still just one John Clark) will see Moscow when the door is opened 
and make a bet. One of the John Clarks will win the bet and one will not; it 
can never be determined if "he" won the bet because as soon as the door was 
opened the 2 bodies were no longer identical, they had different memories, so 
that personal pronoun becomes ambiguous.   
​> ​That contradict the fact that you have agreed that both copies are the 
Helsinki guy.
​After the bodies are duplicated but before the door is opened there are 2 
bodies but still only one Helsinki guy​ ​because they are identical, ​when the 
door is opened they see different things and thus diverge. They both remain the 
Helsinki guy​ because they have equally vivid memories of being a guy in 
Helsinki, but they are no longer each other ​because they diverged as soon as 
the door was opened. I understand how that state of affairs would be strange, 
but please explain how it is contradictory.  

There is nothing contradictory.
On the contrary, that is a good explanation why P(W v M) = 1, when W and M 
refer to the self-localization experience. As you said, the experience diverge. 
For one Helsinki guy the measurement is W, and so write W in the diary, and for 
the other the measurement gives M, and he write M in his diary. Both agree that 
they could not have predicted that result, except by betting "W v M", which is 
undermined but true at both place, and obviously the experience "W and M" is, 
well, not even an experience at all. It is half an experience, and half an 
intellectual belief.



 ​> ​There is no ambiguity, you are both guys.
​"You" is both guys.
Intellectually. The experience have diverged, The outcome of the 
self-localization are different. From now on, you are either a guy living in 
Moscow having a doppelganger in Washington, OR a guy living in Washington 
having a doppelganger in Moscow. You don't become a mysterious entity 
experiencing both place simultaneously. Both got one bit of information from 
the push+self-localization measurement.




One guy will be in Moscow. One guy will be in Washington. But "you" will see 
only one city.
yes, in Helsinki, you can be sure of that/ You push on a button, open a door, 
and see only one city, and get a cup of coffee.
You have guessed right the other day. P(coffee) = 1 because "coffee" is 
satisfied in both place. But "W or M" is also satisfied in both place, and "W 
and M" is false in both place, as W and M refers to the incompatible experience 
of seeing Moscow and seeing Washington from the direct first person experience. 
Indeed, only the mysterious entity experiencing both places could wriite W and 
M, by the definition of the FIRST person experience denoted by W and M.



​ Bruno Marchal​ is correct, that is not ambiguous, ​that is a flat out logical 
contradiction.

Where? it is W & M which is a flat out contradiction, when W and M refers to 
the first person experience. One diary contains M, the other contain W. None 
contain W and M. I hope you are OK with this.



I said it before I'll say it again, if Bruno Marchal​ wants the words "you will 
only see one city" to be true Bruno Marchal​ is going to have to change the 
meaning of the personal pronoun "you" ; 
I don't have to change the meaning. Right at the start, the question is about 
the expected outcome of a first person experience. You agree that there is a 
divergence, so I guess you understood that one write in the diary W, and the 
other write M. Those are what makes the divergence to exist. I keep the meaning 
of "you", and you are in both city, but the point is that in both city you see 
only once city, so the bet P(one city) = 1 was correct, and P(I see two cities 
at once when opening the box) = 0. The prediction is on the personal experience 
of what is seen when opening the door. It is NOT on the third person 
localization of those experiences.


somebody who remembers being a man in Helsinki just won't work.
It works perfectly well. After the duplication, I interviewed all the guys who 
remember having been the guy pushing on the button in Helsinki, and they all 
told me that indeed, as predicted, the self-localizaton measurement gave as a 
result only once city. P(one city) was equal as P(coffe), for the exact same 
reason: that is what is lived by all the continuations.
Bruno







  John K Clark
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