On 19-08-2019 04:06, 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List wrote:
On Fri, Aug 16, 2019 at 4:43 PM smitra <smi...@zonnet.nl> wrote:
The orthogonality can be rigorously proved as follows. If we have a
single particle incident on the two slits described by a time
dependent
wave function psi(x,t) = 1/sqrt(2) [A(x,t) + B(x,t)] such that at
A(x,0)
is nonzero at one slit and B(x,0) at the other slit, then A(x,0)
and
B(x,0) are obviously orthogonal.
Don't you mean "...such that at A(x,0) is _ZERO_ at one slit and
B(x,0) at the other slit, then A(x,0) and
B(x,0) are obviously orthogonal." Simply being non-zero at the
alternate slits won't make them orthogonal.
But of course they are not zero at either .
That's right, the overlap will then be zero.
Saibal
--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
"Everything List" group.
To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email
to everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
To view this discussion on the web visit
https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/everything-list/4a98802ab9cbb44e203661071ce8d974%40zonnet.nl.
