I see you continuously blending computation (the mechanical enumeration of 
finite steps) with provability (what a formal theory can or cannot prove in 
principle, given its axioms) all the time. Everybody with an eye for it 
can. You want an example: reread yourself. As long as you keep conflating 
those two notions, we’ll never find common ground on a ToE or Gödel’s 
incompleteness applying or not because of lack of clarity. Gödel’s results 
hinge on provability in a system strong enough to represent arithmetic, not 
on whether you can simulate 𝑁 steps of a cellular automaton. Invoking 
uncomputable inference rules (like the ω-rule) further muddles the line 
between informal physics-adjacent and logical methods, without clarifying 
which framework you’re using + to which end. You admit yourself that you 
enjoy playing teacher. Thank you for that information and best wishes for 
your "ToE" and "teaching".

On Saturday, January 18, 2025 at 4:53:57 PM UTC+1 Jesse Mazer wrote:

> On Sat, Jan 18, 2025 at 5:29 AM PGC <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>>
>>
>> On Tuesday, January 14, 2025 at 9:06:29 PM UTC+1 Jesse Mazer wrote:
>>
>> On Tue, Jan 14, 2025 at 4:56 AM PGC <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> On Monday, January 13, 2025 at 11:58:38 PM UTC+1 Jesse Mazer wrote:
>>
>>
>> Doesn't Godel's theorem only apply to systems whose output can be mapped 
>> to judgments about the truth-value of propositions in first-order 
>> arithmetic? A cellular automaton would seem to have "evolving quantities 
>> and/or qualities through numerical or some other equivalent formalism's 
>> means", but Godel's theorem places no limitations on our ability to compute 
>> the behavior of the cellular automaton for N time-increments, for any 
>> finite value of N, so I would think Godel's theorem would likewise place no 
>> limitations on our ability to compute the physical evolution of the 
>> universe's state for any finite time interval. For some cellular automata 
>> it may be possible to set up the initial state so that the question of 
>> whether some theorem is ever proved true or false by the Peano axioms (or 
>> other axioms for arithmetic) is equivalent to a question about whether the 
>> automaton ever arrives at a certain configuration of cells, so Godel's 
>> theorem may imply limits on our ability to answer such questions, but this 
>> is a question about whether something happens in an infinite time period. I 
>> assume there are similar limitations on our ability to determine whether 
>> certain physical states will ever occur in an infinite future 
>> (straightforwardly if we build a physical machine that derives theorems 
>> from the Peano axioms, or a machine that derives conclusions about whether 
>> various Turing programs halt), but most of what physicists do is concerned 
>> with predictions over finite time intervals, I don't see how Godel's 
>> theorem would pose any fundamental obstacles to doing that.
>>
>> Jesse
>>
>>
>> Gödel’s first incompleteness theorem states that any sufficiently strong 
>> formal system (capable of arithmetic) contains statements that are 
>> undecidable—neither provable nor disprovable within that system. The second 
>> theorem says such a system cannot prove its own consistency from its own 
>> axioms. These are statements about provability in formal theories. They are 
>> not directly about whether you can compute a finite number of steps in a 
>> system like a cellular automaton.
>>
>> You can absolutely compute, step by step, the evolving states of a 
>> (finite) cellular automaton for N time steps, and Gödel’s theorems do not 
>> say you can’t. They say something deeper: if your formal axioms are strong 
>> enough to represent integer arithmetic (like Peano Arithmetic or any 
>> Turing-complete formulation), there will be statements expressible within 
>> that framework which it cannot resolve. That’s a statement about what can 
>> or cannot be proven within the system, not about whether a machine can run 
>> a simulation for some finite time. 
>>
>> You also assume that Gödel’s incompleteness only restricts what can 
>> happen in an “infinite time” scenario. For example: “Well, sure, there 
>> might be some question about whether a certain configuration arises 
>> eventually, but for finite intervals we have no Gödel-limited obstacles.” 
>> This misreads Gödel: Gödel’s first theorem does not hinge on infinite time 
>> steps; it is about the intrinsic logical structure of the formal system. 
>> Even for trivial seeming statements involving finite objects (e.g., “this 
>> specific integer has property P”), the theorem shows there can be 
>> statements that the system cannot prove or disprove. It’s not that you 
>> can’t “run the simulation long enough,” but rather that the theory itself 
>> cannot settle certain propositions at all.
>>
>>
>> I think you are misunderstanding my claim, I didn't say that Godel's 
>> theorem itself is directly stated in terms of number of time steps of some 
>> computation, only that if we look for applications of Godel to 
>> computational dynamical systems like cellular automata or computable 
>> physics (and Deutsch's result on p. 11-13 at 
>> https://www.daviddeutsch.org.uk/wp-content/deutsch85.pdf suggests the 
>> evolution of any finite quantum system is computable), the only 
>> applications will be to questions about whether the dynamical system ever 
>> reaches a certain state in an unlimited time. You said yourself that 
>> Godel's theorem places no limits on our ability to compute the behavior of 
>> such a system for N time steps given any specific value of N, so I don't 
>> think you disagree with this. If you do disagree, i.e. you think there is a 
>> way of applying Godel's theorem to a finite computable system that places 
>> limits on our ability to deduce something about its behavior over a finite 
>> series of time steps, please give an example.
>>
>>
>> First I'll address the rest of your post as there's not really much to 
>> talk about: Uncomputable inference rules (like the ω-rule) aren’t used in 
>> standard physical theories much, so invoking them misses the core point 
>> about Gödel’s incompleteness unless you have some incredible non-standard 
>> result to show; in which case, prove/show it.
>>
>
> *What* core point do you think I'm missing by invoking them, can you be 
> more specific? I only invoked them to make a simple point about your own 
> statement "Gödel’s point is more general: the existence of some undecidable 
> statements is guaranteed"--my point that this is only true if by "general" 
> you are talking about the general case of *computable* systems whose output 
> can be mapped to statements about arithmetic. If you agree with the point 
> that Godel's proof only applies to computable systems (i.e. that his own 
> definition of 'formal systems' is now understood to be equivalent to 
> computable systems), then I don't think you have any reason to dispute what 
> I said there, I brought up the case of it not applying to non-computable 
> systems for no other reason besides making that point. In general it seems 
> like you have a rather uncharitable way of reading what I write, jumping to 
> conclusions that I am talking nonsense without reading very carefully, as 
> in this case or the earlier case (which you haven't tried to defend) where 
> you decided I was claiming that 'the existence of straightforward 
> computable truths (e.g., “2 + 2 = 4” or “state s follows from state s_0 
> after N steps”) somehow negates Gödel’s theorems', something I definitely 
> was not doing.
>
> Assuming you agree with the point that Godel's theorem applies 
> specifically to computable arithmetic-provers, I wonder what you think of 
> my followup point that the theorem can be trivially translated into a 
> statement about a certain kind of halting problem (i.e. a statement about 
> whether something will occur in an unlimited number of computational steps):
>
> 'And given the understanding that the theorem is specifically about 
> computational systems, we can think in terms of a program that takes any 
> given set of axioms, like the Peano axioms, and methodically finds all the 
> possible propositions that can be derived from them; then for any specific 
> WFF, one can modify the program so it will halt if it ever derives either 
> the WFF or its negation. In that case, the claim that there are certain 
> statements that are undecidable is equivalent to the claim that this 
> program will never halt on such a statement, meaning that when translated 
> into these terms it does become another "will something ever happen in an 
> infinite time" question, even if that wasn't Godel's original formulation.'
>
>  
>
>> Again, we can simulate a finite system for N time steps, but Gödel’s 
>> result is not about whether you can brute-force a finite trajectory—it’s 
>> about the existence of statements in a sufficiently strong formal framework 
>> (one that encodes arithmetic) which no consistent axiom system can decide. 
>> Consequently, if a “theory of everything” in physics is robust enough to 
>> interpret integer arithmetic, then Gödel’s incompleteness theorems apply.
>>
>
> I have never disputed that they apply to certain physical questions, I've 
> just said that they apply only to questions about whether some physical 
> state will occur in unlimited time, not about the local dynamics which is 
> what physicists usually mean when they talk about looking for a "theory of 
> everything". Are you actually disagreeing, and making a positive claim they 
> limit our ability to answer questions about dynamics over a finite time?
>  
>
>> There's really nothing more I can say regarding all the vagueness in your 
>> reply, because you clearly are performing rhetorical moves to limit the 
>> generality of Gödel's contributions and separating "modern physics" from it.
>>
>> And doing the same while demanding “an example” for finite steps is 
>> meaningless unless we specify exactly which formal system’s provability 
>> we’re talking about
>>
>
> OK, pick any specific cellular automaton which is known to have the 
> property of computational universality (and thus one can design an initial 
> state such that later states can be mapped to statements about arithmetic 
> generated by an algorithm), like Conway's Game of Life. Do you claim that 
> Godel's theorem would place any limits on our ability to predict the 
> behavior of a finite collection of cells for a finite time? Do you claim it 
> would place any limits on whether any intelligent beings that might exist 
> within such a cellular automaton would be able to discover the basic cell 
> transition rules, which can be thought of as analogous to physicists in the 
> real world finding a final physical ToE?
>
>  
>
>> That omission reveals a misunderstanding of Gödel: he never claimed you 
>> can’t compute discrete steps in a small system, 
>>
>
> Again you are leaping to uncharitable conclusions--I never said or implied 
> that Godel claimed you can't compute discrete steps in a small system. 
> Since you seem to keep misreading me as arguing there is something wrong 
> with Godel's proof, I want to be clear on the point that I have never 
> claimed there is any problem with Godel's theorem as *he* stated it, I've 
> only made some points about *your* claim that Godel has application to 
> physics or other computational dynamical systems. And my point is not even 
> that this claim is wrong in itself, just that the application is limited to 
> questions about whether certain states will occur in an unlimited series of 
> time-steps, that it does not imply any limits on our ability to find a 
> final dynamical ToE or to answer questions about behavior over a finite 
> time interval, i.e. the types of questions physicists are actually 
> concerned with in practice (do you dispute that these are the types of 
> questions physicists are usually concerned with in practice, not questions 
> about whether arbitrary physical states will arise in unlimited time?)
>
>  
>
>> but rather that any consistent, arithmetic-level theory remains 
>> incomplete about some statements. This conflation of “finite-step 
>> computation” with “formal provability” underscores why your rhetorical 
>> moves lack any sort of precision
>>
>
> Saying I am conflating "finite-step computation" with "formal provability" 
> is itself a rhetorical move lacking precision--I'm not clear on what you 
> mean by conflating the two, but I don't think I have done that, I've just 
> said that when we apply Godel's theorem (a theorem about formal 
> provability) to computational systems, the application is only about the 
> behavior of some such computational systems in the limit, Godel's theorem 
> does *not* imply any problem with answering questions about their behavior 
> over a finite series of steps (which I suppose is what you mean by 
> 'finite-step computation').
>
>  
>
>> and ultimately misrepresent/misunderstand not only Gödel’s theorems but 
>> the nuanced notion of provability in basic terms.
>>
>
> Again a rather vague rhetorical move--what specific claim do you think I 
> have made (that I would recognize as something I have genuinely claimed and 
> not a misreading) that misrepresents/misunderstands Godel's theorem and 
> provability?
>  
>
>> Because provability is relative and computability is not.
>>
>
> I don't think I have said or implied otherwise--by "relative" I assume you 
> just mean relative to the choice of axiomatic system? Consider the 
> paragraph of mine about translating Godel's theorem into explicitly 
> computational terms, the one starting with the words "And given the 
> understanding that the theorem is specifically about computational systems, 
> we can think in terms of a program that takes any given set of axioms, like 
> the Peano axioms"--obviously the notion of what theorems would be proven by 
> such a computational program would be relative to which program we choose, 
> we could have such a program for generating all statements provable using 
> the Peano axioms, or we could have a *different* program for generating all 
> statements provable with some other axiomatic system.
>
>  
>
>> Your stock fell for me with this reply. Please don't pretend to spoon 
>> feed me. You can play teacher with AG, which is out-of-topic regarding ToE. 
>> AG can pay for lessons somewhere and play "not convinced" twirling his 
>> moustache and adjusting his monocle elsewhere and the 
>> trolling/grandstanding, playing god is so abundant... moderate it guys. 
>> Passivity kills freedom and discourse.
>>
>
> I don't think I am trying to spoon feed you, just defend my view from your 
> accusations that I am getting something wrong about Godel's theorem, and 
> assert my own view about what physical questions Godel's theorem applies to 
> (is there any way I could try to make the same substantive points such that 
> you would *not* see it as 'pretending to spoon feed you' or 'playing 
> teacher', even if you continued to think I was incorrect? In other words, 
> is it something about my language or tone that's bothering you, so that if 
> I had written things differently you'd have found my posts less 
> objectionable even if I had made exactly the same counterarguments?) Sorry 
> if my discussion with AG bothers you, I agree it's off-topic but others 
> were already responding so I thought I'd try to weigh in as well, like a 
> lot of nerds I admit I have a bit of the syndrome at https://xkcd.com/386/
>
> Jesse
>

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