Reply to Akasha appears below:

--- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, akasha_108 <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
> --- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, anonymousff <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
> > --- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, akasha_108 <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
> > [SNIP]
> > > That Awareness is expressed in the lifes of all in infinite 
ways is 
> > of
> > > little surprise. However, what I was seeking to confirm (or 
refute if
> > > there is no confirmation -- same process) is that there is some
> > > commonality to the so called experience of so called 
awakening. As a
> > > rough analogy, while all humans are unique and different, 
there are
> > > are core features of commonality that allow them to be 
classified as
> > > homo-sapiens.
> > [SNIP TO END]
> > 
> > ***
> > I like to think that there is one underlying reality that all 
forms 
> > and expressions of enlightenment take part in. That may be 
asking too 
> > much, but I'd like to take it as a starting point. 
> 
> Why not similataneously hold that there maybe is commonality and 
also
> mayber there is NOT commonality to all human expressions or 
experience
> of spritual unfoldment. It seems if you take ONE possiblity as 
true as
> the strating point, you may be chasing your tail.

****
REPLY TO AKASHA:

I feel very disappointed that you dismissed this discussion so 
easily. It is as if you didn't bother reading past my first 
paragraph and formed an opinion on that basis alone.

Somehow, I think you misunderstood me. To better explain the point 
of view I was expressing, I'll use an analogy that you recently 
used: physicists acknowledge that some phenomena are best described 
by Newtonian physics, while others are better describe by Quantum 
Mechanics. However, an underlying assumption is that these two 
methods of describing and explaining phenomena are in fact 
describing the same universe. 

So that was my starting point. I chose to assume that there is one 
universe within which different people get "enlightened". This says 
nothing about the description of that universe, or the character of 
the enlightenment of anyone in particular. For example, this same 
universe may support an enlightenment in which God or Personal God 
plays an important role, an enlightenment in which there is no God, 
an enlightenment in which the ultimate truth can well be described 
using words like "Self", or an enlightenment in which there is No 
Self. These various forms of "enlightenment" may be on some 
sequential path, or they may be mutually exclusive end states. All 
of that is up for grabs, as far as I'm concerned. And yes, maybe 
there are forms of "enlightenment" that have no commonality 
whatsoever with other forms.

What if everyone exists in his/her own universe with its own rules? 
What does that mean, really? Does it mean that the person's 
experience alone defines his/her universe? or that everyone else's 
universe doesn't really exist as far as I'm concerned? Well, we 
could go that way. But I don't find it very fruitful.

I've included my original post below. I was hoping to get a more 
thoughtful reply from you. But, if you don't want to, well, ok, it 
was fun, I guess...

a

****

ORIGINAL POST REPEATED:

--- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, akasha_108 <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
wrote:
[SNIP]
> That Awareness is expressed in the lifes of all in infinite ways is
of
> little surprise. However, what I was seeking to confirm (or refute 
if
> there is no confirmation -- same process) is that there is some
> commonality to the so called experience of so called awakening. As 
a
> rough analogy, while all humans are unique and different, there are
> are core features of commonality that allow them to be classified 
as
> homo-sapiens.
[SNIP TO END]

***
I like to think that there is one underlying reality that all forms
and expressions of enlightenment take part in. That may be asking too
much, but I'd like to take it as a starting point. Then, the question
arises, within that reality, how much room is there for variation of
experience that could meaningfully be called "awakened"
or "enlightened"?

Some differences may be accounted for by people being at
various "stages". Thus, for example, you could have some speak of the
world of change as unreal. While this sounds like a fairly advanced
perception, it may be a reflection of the Self/Non-Self duality that
M. associates with CC. Others might speak of the world of change as
utterly real, and seamlessly connected to the unchanging, which 
sounds more like a UC perception.

One confounding factor brought out in various autobiographical
accounts is that "awakened" states may be experienced at first
as "ultimate" because they all have some quality of unboundedness,
infinity, immortality about them; whereas, it is only in retrospect
that they may be recognized as transitional states moving on to
more "awakenings".

But all of this presupposes that there is one more or less general
outcome (with many minor variations) for everyone who is destined
to "awaken". That could be a false assumption.

If we take it that advanced practitioners of many spiritual 
traditions have "attained" to the states that they define as 
awakened, how are we to account for the variances in description? Is 
some of this just a problem of trying to describe the ineffable? 
Would all of these people agree with each other about their states 
(if not their descriptions of them) if they sat down and talked to 
each other, as Dr. Pete has suggested? Or are there possibly 
fundamentally different "realized" states? For example, could it be 
that the Hindus experience "Self-realization" while Buddhists speak 
of there being no Self (big S or little), because these are 
different experiences of the underlying truth?





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