On 20.5.2002 03:43, "Linda Worsley" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> You'd think after a hundred years of writing music and copying > manuscripts I'd know this, but when I was asked today, and gave "my" > answer, it made me think: Is this right??? Help me, o list gurus. > > I generally do not call a pickup measure "measure 1" but start the > numbering at the first full measure. I just went through a bunch of > scores, but all have rehearsal numbers and no measure numbers, or the > few that do, by some quirk of fate, all begin on the downbeat with > full measures. All my orchestration books, band scoring books, > notation books, etc. have no reference to this. > > Anyone out there have the gospel according to whomever? Do I need to > call my pickup measure "measure one"? > > Thanks, all. > > Linda Worsley > > The measure that is full according to the time-signature is the first measure. Like you wrote *...start the numbering at the first full measure* is logical. The pickup measure and the last measure always add up to a full measure. If you start numbering at the pickup measure what do you do at the last measure? Pickup measure is a part of a measure (!!!!!) Now I must find my Gardner Read or Ted Ross or Whomever! Cortez _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://mail.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
