On 28 Jan 2004, at 03:08 PM, tim-cates wrote:
in my experience, many commercial composers/orchestrators use this indication incorrectly for a fp effect - worse, they'll put sfz and expect a fp from the performer...... it's almost as bad as using an accent (>) when what they really want is a note held full value from a wind player (happens in jazz/rock flavored church orchestrations waaaaay too often)
Well, first off, jazz and popular music have a different set of conventions than classical music, and calling these conventions "incorrect" is a wee bit presumptuous, methinks.
The jazz/pop convention is that "wedge" accents (>) are accented and long (full value), and "hat" accents (the inverted "V") are accented and short. They are the accented equivalents of tenuto and staccato. I know this doesn't correspond exactly to the way classical musicians interpret these articulations, but that doesn't matter -- they are consistent, well-established, and well-understood conventions in the, uh, "non-nonpop" world.
Also, some jazz and pop arrangers use "sfz" as a shorthand for "fp followed by a crescendo." But this is, at least in my experience, not widely understood and best avoided -- especially if you're picky about where the crescendo is supposed to begin.
Also, Johannes said it makes a difference to string players whether it's "sfp" or "fp." Maybe he could elaborate on what that difference is? I'm still not exactly clear what the audible distinction is between all of the markings under discussion (sfz, sfp, sfzp, fp), versus a plain old wedge accent (>). For instance, if you had a long note with an accent (>) and an "fp" indication below, how is that different from "sfp" or "sfzp"?
- Darcy
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[EMAIL PROTECTED] Brooklyn NY
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