Hi, John, 

I wouldn't say delusion, if by "delusion" you meant "seeing something there
that isn't there at all".  The word that gets used in these situations is
more likely to be "confusion".  Asking a question which violates the rules
of language and then attributing the answer to an absence of fact.  "What is
the sound of one hand clapping?"  is a violation of the rule of language
that defines "clapping" as the sound of two hands coming together.   What
would I say if you came to me with a severed hand in a plush box and told me
that you had heard it clap?  I guess, I would have to say that you were
either confused or delusional, or both, depending on how you understand the
term "clap." 

I have already read Eric's answer to your Charlemagne conundrum, and commend
it to you.   I would say that there is no fact of  the matter, unless it be
the case that you can imagine a series of experiments that would resolve it.
The word "experiment", here, is used in the Peircean sense to refer to a
planned, logical series of arranged experiences.  Digging for Charlemagne's
breakfast plates would perhaps be an example of such an "experiment".  


Nicholas S. Thompson
Emeritus Professor of Psychology and Biology
Clark University
http://home.earthlink.net/~nickthompson/naturaldesigns/


-----Original Message-----
From: Friam [mailto:friam-boun...@redfish.com] On Behalf Of John Kennison
Sent: Tuesday, February 23, 2016 12:47 PM
To: The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group <friam@redfish.com>
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] Weeds of pragmatism: Subjectivity and intimacy

Hi Nick,

Thanks for liking my metaphor. In my previous statement I should have noted
that "dualism" for a historian is the analog of dualism for a psychologist
studying conscioisness. You seem to rejerct both. The crucial questions
then, are do you see any talk about "what really happened in the past" as
some sort of delusion? Would you go one step further and say the concept
that there is a truth about what happened in the past is delusional, for
example "We have no way of knowing for certain whether Charlemagne ate eggs
on a particulr day during his life(Say January 1, 800 ad) but there is a
truth about the matter (either he did or did not) even though it is a truth
we can never fully determine?

--John
________________________________________
From: Friam [friam-boun...@redfish.com] on behalf of Nick Thompson
[nickthomp...@earthlink.net]
Sent: Tuesday, February 23, 2016 1:56 PM
To: 'The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group'
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] Weeds of pragmatism: Subjectivity and intimacy

Hi, John,

Welcome to the Weeds!

I like the history metaphor.  What I think Peirce would say is everything
you describe is experience NOW.  Some of those experiences NOW get
understood as experiences THEN.  So, an "experience-then" is just a way of
organizing some of the "experiences-now".  There is no experience beyond
experience.  Put baldly, that sounds like nothing more than a trivial
tautology.   For me, it is a chastening reminder that any knowledge I assert
beyond experience is either (1) nonsense or (2) a statement about some
experiences.

I know my Peirce-guru occasionally lurks, here, and I hope he will correct
me.   In particular, I wish he could remind me why I care about this enough
even to devote a sub thread to it.

Nick

Nicholas S. Thompson
Emeritus Professor of Psychology and Biology Clark University
http://home.earthlink.net/~nickthompson/naturaldesigns/


-----Original Message-----
From: Friam [mailto:friam-boun...@redfish.com] On Behalf Of John Kennison
Sent: Tuesday, February 23, 2016 12:51 AM
To: The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group <friam@redfish.com>
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] Weeds of pragmatism: Subjectivity and intimacy

I don't know it I am following all this correctly, but I would like to apply
it to the question of doing History scientifically. At the start all we have
are relics from the past  --maybe we are uncertain which objects and/or
documents really go back to a historical period under examination--but we
have some way of testing for various relations between these relics. Se then
look for a theory of the past which best accounts for the relics that we
have. We may be able to measure how well different theories do this
accounting. And the set opf measutres we arrive at is then history.

But would some historian be dualists if they say there is a real truth about
what happened in the past, it's just that we this real truth may not be
recoverable.


________________________________________
From: Friam [friam-boun...@redfish.com] on behalf of Nick Thompson
[nickthomp...@earthlink.net]
Sent: Tuesday, February 23, 2016 1:34 AM
To: 'The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group'
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] Weeds of pragmatism: Subjectivity and intimacy

Eric,

I really like all of you said.  What follows is a cavil, and will problem
interest most readers as much as the bickering among monks about how often
to wash their hair shirts.   Please do not reply to this message unless you
are interested in what follows.

________________________________
ONLY PERSONS UNINTERESTED IN THE WEEDIEST THICKETS OF PRAGMATISM SHOULD READ
BELOW THIS LINE ________________________________ I think, Eric,  you left
the door open for dualism, when you describe the settlement of scientific
opinion, and I need to close it behind you.  You wrote:

3) In order to do science about something, we need only one thing to be
true: It can be investigated empirically. That is, it is something, "out
there" which we can turn our machinations towards, and which will yield
stable results once we find the appropriate methods for its investigation.


Here you imply that science is possible because there is Truth out there,
concerning which human experience is fated to converge.  The real world is
somehow responsible for the convergence of opinion among scientists.   Note
the subtle difference in the way you presented it only a few paragraphs
later:

7) And that's where we find ourselves. If a science of psychology is
possible, then de facto the subject matter of psychology is some swath of
empirically investigatable happenings, about which a community of
investigators would eventually reach a consensus as the scientific process
takes its course.

Here, you focus exclusively on the convergence of opinion, eliminating
altogether the notion of a truth outside human experience.  Peirce would say
- and perhaps James would not agree - that  "that opinion upon which human
scientists are fated to agree " is exactly, and only, what is meant by the
truth.  So, there is a truth "out there", beyond what you, or I, or any
other individuals might come to believe,  but not a truth beyond what all
humans might come to believe.  All we know now is that those opinions which
are enduring and coherent with other enduring opinions have the best
mathematical chance of being those opinions upon which we will ultimately
converge.  Lets say we are in a group of geographers wandering in a
blizzard.  We are completely disoriented and we have no consensus concerning
what is the right direction home.  Some propose going down hill, some up
hill, some following the slope to the right or left.  What is the function
of "home" in our discussion.  It is the place which, when we get there, we
will terminate the discussion of where it is.

To all intents and purposes, this distinction is monk's work.  The kind of
question only true believers in pragmatism could trouble themselves with.
For the rest of you, who need to get on with your work of building bridges
and electing politicians, you need only say to yourselves (quietly, please,
so Peirce will not hear you), "the REASON that scientists converge on some
opinion is that there is something outside the world of human experience
that beckons them toward it.  Some Truth.  But that is dualism, and Peirce
never would have tolerated it.
________________________________
SEE.  I TOLD YOU THIS WOULD BORE YOU!
________________________________
If you want to continue the previous conversation, but don't want to go into
the Weeds Of Pragmatism with me  and Eric, I suggest you reply to an earlier
message, not to this one.

Nick


Nicholas S. Thompson
Emeritus Professor of Psychology and Biology Clark University
http://home.earthlink.net/~nickthompson/naturaldesigns/

From: Friam [mailto:friam-boun...@redfish.com] On Behalf Of Eric Charles
Sent: Monday, February 22, 2016 8:09 PM
To: The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group <friam@redfish.com>
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] Subjectivity and intimacy

Russ said: "Eric's point that the world must be a certain way if we are to
do science doesn't make sense to me. If Schrodinger, Heisenberg, etc.
thought like that they would have denied the two-slit experiments, and
quantum mechanics wouldn't exist. Science (as you all know) is fundamentally
empirical. You can't demand that the world be a certain way so that it's
easier to do science."
Exactly! Let me try another tact.
1) We could imagine (with various levels of clarity) any number of worlds in
which things worked differently from each other.
2) "Doing science" is largely a process of trying to figure out which of
those worlds we live in, by searching for the best way to divide up
empirical evidence, so that it is reliable and can be agreed up. (Peirce was
particularly fascinated with the advances made in 18th century chemistry.)
Scientists search for more and more stable ways to view the world, i.e.,
ways which stand up to more and more empirical scrutiny. (Early attempts at
the periodic table, though imperfect, serve as an excellent example of this,
leading to countless confirmatory experiments, including the correct
prediction of the properties of yet-to-be-isolated elements.)

3) In order to do science about something, we need only one thing to be
true: It can be investigated empirically. That is, it is something, "out
there" which we can turn our machinations towards, and which will yield
stable results once we find the appropriate methods for its investigation.

4) Many important big-name people have declared that a science of psychology
is impossible, because the stuff under discussion in that context simply
cannot be investigated empirically. Kant, is a prime example. Those
big-names declared that another person's mind was not the type of thing that
you could examine empirically, because the province of the soul did not
yield itself to earthly poking and prodding. If those big-names are correct,
and minds cannot be investigated, by their very nature, we would expect
efforts in that direction to fail-to-produce the convergence-of-ideas
characteristic of successful science.
5) We can imagine a world in which those big-names are correct. We can
imagine a world in which many types of things can be investigated
empirically, but not minds, and in which all attempts to produce a science
of the mind would fail pathetically.
6) The above view has had a virtual strangle hold on Western thinking for
centuries. However, in the late 1800's a few serious scholars started
thinking that "science of psychology" might be given a go, to see how it
went. They were widely dismissed, not allowed to hold their heads high in
either scientific circles or philosophical ones.
7) And that's where we find ourselves. If a science of psychology is
possible, then de facto the subject matter of psychology is some swath of
empirically investigatable happenings, about which a community of
investigators would eventually reach a consensus as the scientific process
takes its course. We might not live in such a world, but we won't know
without trying it. A science of ether winds never worked out. The attempted
science of medieval humours was a bust. A science of studying
bumps-on-people's-heads has been roundly rejected. All sorts of attempted
sciences have not worked out over the years. But the science of the mind
seems to be doing reasonably well. Either that progress is an illusion, and
empirical-psychologists will soon go the way of the phrenologists, or that
progress is evidence that the big-names who thought of "mind" as inherently
uninvestigatable were wrong on a very fundamental level.
If you are to study a romantic partner's mind in order to become intimate
with her, then her mind must be something that can be studied. If I am to
study your feeling of intimacy, then your feeling-of-intimacy must be
something that can be studied. And so on, and so forth. Whatever methods and
categories that leads us two, such is the stuff of the science of
psychology, whether it matches any of our preconceptions, or not.
Best,
Eric

















-----------
Eric P. Charles, Ph.D.
Lab Manager
Center for Teaching, Research, and Learning American University, Hurst Hall
Room 203A
4400 Massachusetts Avenue, N.W.
Washington, DC 20016
phone: (202) 885-3867   fax: (202) 885-1190
email: echar...@american.edu<mailto:echar...@american.edu>

On Mon, Feb 22, 2016 at 7:13 PM, Russ Abbott
<russ.abb...@gmail.com<mailto:russ.abb...@gmail.com>> wrote:
I'm flattered. Thank you. I can see myself in the Devil's Advocate role --
except for the last part. I'll grant that you can think whatever you want.

[NST==>"close" is a metaphor;  I am suggesting a co-location in space
metaphor to substitute for the privacy-inside metaphor which I take to be
yours.  I am suggesting, roughly, that the more experiences we share, the
more we are of one mind.  <==nst]

That won't work for my sense of intimacy. One can be intimate (in my sense)
on the telephone and via written words. Sharing (i.e., participating in the
same) experiences is not required for intimacy in my sense. What is required
(in my sense) is sharing (i.e., talking about one's subjective experiences
of one's) experiences.

 [NST==>You will find this sentence totally unintelligible until you
entertain the notion that the self is an inferred entity, inferred using the
same sort of equipment that we use to infer the motives, aspirations,
feelings, and thoughts of others.  What differs between you and me is the
amount of time we spend around me.  To the extent that I spend more time
than you do around me, I am probably a better source of info about what I am
up to, thinking about, etc., ceteris paribus.  Thus, I may greater
familiarity with me than you do, I don't have any special access to me.
<==nst]

What does it mean to infer something if one has no subjective experience? I
think of inferring something as having to do with thinking about it. More
generally what does it mean to think about something in your framework? I'll
agree that thinking involves stuff happening in the brain. So it's behavior
in that sense. But it's not behavior in the sense you seem to be talking
about. So what does it mean in your sense to think about something?

I realize I'm on shaky ground here because computers "think" about things
without having what I would call subjective experience.

[NST==>If you insist that a mind is a thing that is enclosed in a head (or a
steel cabinet, etc.), then I can only say that if a robot does mind things,
than a robot "has" a mind.  But I rebel against the metaphor.  <==nst]

I don't insist that a mind is anything. I don't know how to talk about
subjective experience scientifically. I see no reason to deny it, but I
agree we have made little scientific progress in talking about it.

By the way, Eric's point that the world must be a certain way if we are to
do science doesn't make sense to me. If Schrodinger, Heisenberg, etc.
thought like that they would have denied the two-slit experiments, and
quantum mechanics wouldn't exist. Science (as you all know) is fundamentally
empirical. You can't demand that the world be a certain way so that it's
easier to do science.

[NST==>I have to run, now, but please see  Intentionality is the Mark of the
Vital<https://www.researchgate.net/publication/281409844_Intentionality_is_t
he_mark_of_the_vital> .  Ethology is thick with intentionality. Language is
not an necessary condition for intentionalty.  All is required is the sign
relation (cf Peirce). <==nst]

I looked at (but didn't read in any detail) the Intentionality paper. The
upshot seems to be that non-humans have intentionality. I don't argue with
that. My question for you is still how you reconcile intentionality with not
having subjective experience. What is intentionality without subjectivity?
(Again, I'm moving onto shaky ground since we have "goal-directed" software
even though the software and the computer that runs it has no subjective
experience.)

I guess in both cases in which computers seem to "think" or "plan" we are
using those terms as analogs to what we see ourselves doing and not really
to attribute those processes to computers or software.

On Mon, Feb 22, 2016 at 3:23 PM Nick Thompson
<nickthomp...@earthlink.net<mailto:nickthomp...@earthlink.net>> wrote:
See Larding below:

Nicholas S. Thompson
Emeritus Professor of Psychology and Biology Clark University
http://home.earthlink.net/~nickthompson/naturaldesigns/

From: Friam
[mailto:friam-boun...@redfish.com<mailto:friam-boun...@redfish.com>] On
Behalf Of Russ Abbott
Sent: Monday, February 22, 2016 3:08 PM

To: The Friday Morning Applied Complexity Coffee Group
<friam@redfish.com<mailto:friam@redfish.com>>
Subject: Re: [FRIAM] Subjectivity and intimacy

Sorry that I'm not responding to Glen, Jochen, or John, but I've got to
defend Nick's devil's advocate.  Nick, you do keep changing the subject.  In
response to your two suggested definitions of intimacy I asked the
following.

--------------

Version 1: Intimacy is just being so close that you see the same world from
where you stand.

I don't know how to understand that. Do you mean close wrt Euclidean
distance? How does that relate to, for example, pain? No matter how close
you are to someone, you can't see, for example, their toothache.
[NST==>"close" is a metaphor;  I am suggesting a co-location in space
metaphor to substitute for the privacy-inside metaphor which I take to be
yours.  I am suggesting, roughly, that the more experiences we share, the
more we are of one mind.  <==nst]

Version 2: When the self you see projected in another 's behavior toward you
is the same as the self you see projected in your own behavior. [NST==>You
will find this sentence totally unintelligible until you entertain the
notion that the self is an inferred entity, inferred using the same sort of
equipment that we use to infer the motives, aspirations, feelings, and
thoughts of others.  What differs between you and me is the amount of time
we spend around me.  To the extent that I spend more time than you do around
me, I am probably a better source of info about what I am up to, thinking
about, etc., ceteris paribus.  Thus, I may greater familiarity with me than
you do, I don't have any special access to me.   <==nst]

If I remember what happened when we last did this Russ, you made me clearer
and a clearer (and Eric, who wrote the Devil's Advocate questions, in some
ways modeled himself after you), but in the end, you just concluded that I
was nuts, and we let it go at that.

I don't know how to understand that either. What do you mean by "self?" What
does it mean to project it toward someone? What does it mean to say that
it's the same self as the one you project? Over what period of time must
they be the same? If we're talking about behavior would it matter if the
projecting entity were a robot? (Perhaps you answered those questions in the
papers I haven't read. Sorry if that's the case.) [NST==>If you insist that
a mind is a thing that is enclosed in a head (or a steel cabinet, etc.),
than I can only say that if a robot does mind things, than a robot "has" a
mind.  But I rebel against the metaphor.  <==nst]

--------------

You responded with a long (and clear and definitive) extract from your
paper. But I don't see how it answers my questions. Wrt the first question,
if we're talking about behavior, distance doesn't see relevant. Wrt the
second question, the extract doesn't (seem to) talk about what you mean by a
self or what it means for the projected behaviors of two of them to be "the
same" -- or even what projected behavior means. Is it the case that you also
don't "believe in" intentionality? After all how can there be intentionality
without a subjective intent? And if that's the case, what does "projected"
mean? Is it the same as oriented in 3D space?
[NST==>I have to run, now, but please see  Intentionality is the Mark of the
Vital<https://www.researchgate.net/publication/281409844_Intentionality_is_t
he_mark_of_the_vital> .  Ethology is thick with intentionality. Language is
not an necessary condition for intentionalty.  All is required is the sign
relation (cf Peirce). <==nst]



On Mon, Feb 22, 2016 at 1:38 PM glen
<geprope...@gmail.com<mailto:geprope...@gmail.com>> wrote:

I may as well chime in, too, since none of what's been said so far is
meaningful to me.  My concept of intimacy runs along M-W's 2nd entry:

    2 :  to communicate delicately and indirectly

This is almost nothing to do with subjectivity and almost nothing to do with
non-private knowledge (things others know).  It has to do with "delicate"
attention to detail and, perhaps, manipulation.  A robot could easily be
intimate with a human, and demonstrate such intimacy by catering to many of
the tiny things the human prefers/enjoys, even if each and every tiny
preference is publicly known.  Similarly, 2 robots could be intimate by way
of a _special_ inter-robot interface.  But the specialness of the interface
isn't its privacy or uniqueness.  It's in its handling of whatever specific
details are appropriate to those robots.

Even if inter-subjectivity is merely the intertwining of experiences, it's
still largely unrelated to intimacy.  Two complete strangers can become
intimate almost instantaneously, because/if their interfaces are pre-adapted
for a specific coupling.  There it wouldn't be inter-subjectivity, but a
kind of similarity of type.  And that might be mostly or entirely genetic
rather than ontogenic.

And I have to again be some sort of Morlockian champion for the irrelevance
of thought.  2 strangers can be intimate and hold _radically_ different
understandings of the world(s) presented to them ... at least if we believe
the tales told to us in countless novels. 8^)


On 02/22/2016 12:40 AM, Jochen Fromm wrote:
> Nice to see FRIAM is still alive!
> I like this definition as well: "Intimacy is just being so close that you
see the same world from where you stand". In a family for example we are
being so close that we roughly see and experience the same world.
>
> I still believe that the solution to the hard problem lies in Hollywood:
cinemas are built like theaters. If we see a film about a person, it is like
sitting in his or her cartesian theater. We see what the person sees. In a
sense, we feel what the feels as well, especially the pain of loosing
someone.

--
? glen

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