Hyman Rosen wrote:
On 2/7/2010 7:19 AM, RJack wrote:
If "authorizing" is reserved as "exclusive" for the "author" of a work how does a "non-owner" do any authorizing?

Because the original author has authorized him to do so.

Sorry Hyman, only the U.S. Congress has the power to write the copyright
laws and "authorizing others to authorize" simply doesn't appear in
17 USC sec. 106 delineating the rights of owners of copyrights. Only
in your Marxist land of GNU are copyright laws written that way.

Your socialist interpretation of copyright law certainly compliments
your "The Captain's scared them out of the water!" theory on lawsuit
settlements. I will give you credit for being consistent Hyman. It seems
that you're WRONG 100% on the time.

Sincerely,
RJack
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