I recently moved some mutual funds from one brokerage to another. The process did not involve a sale, it was just a transfer of control from the old to the new.

In my current books I keep mutual funds listed as subaccount under each brokerage as such with their respective security/currency:

Investments
-Brokerage 1 (currency)
--Fund A (security A)
--Fund B (security B)
-Brokerage 2 (currency)
--Fund A (security A)
--Fund C (security C)
--Fund D (security D)

I wanted to expand this to add the new brokerage and then perform a transfer of the funds from one to the other. Let's assume I moved the funds under Brokerage 1 to Brokerage 3. So the tree would look like the simplified version below (leaving out Brokerage 2 as it is unaffected):

Investments
-Brokerage 1 (currency)
--Fund A (security A)
--Fund B (security B)
-Brokerage 3 (currency)
--Fund A (security A)
--Fund B (security B)

The securities are the same because it's the same original mutual funds, just moved to another brokerage. The tree would be left intact with the funds under Brokerage 1 being zeroed out and the funds under Brokerage 3 starting off with the incoming values.

My natural tendency was to create a transfer directly within Brokerage 1 Fund A that moved all the shares over to Brokerage 3 Fund A but that didn't create the transaction I expected.

By example, I transferred Fund A on July 1 which contained 10 shares at the price of the shares on that day. So in Brokerage 1 I entered -10 shares with a total sell price of X as listed on the statement from Brokerage 1. The price is autocalculated and the balance correctly goes to zero.

Looking inside the Brokerage 3 Fund A account I only see a transaction that has an amount in the buy column but no shares and a balance of zero. I can manually enter the same number of shares in that partially empty transaction but why was my thought about the transfer incorrect? Should it have not transferred those shares over as well?
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