On Thu, 6 Dec 2007, Sven Schreiber wrote:

> > On the original issue of R^2, I'll file the bug report soon.
> > 
> "Delay that order"... Actually for my real-world cases it turns 
> out there isn't anything (obviously) wrong. However, I'm still 
> puzzled by the 3-liner results I posted earlier. The point 
> estimates are quite different between ols and tsls -- then how 
> come the correlation between fitted and observed is the same to 
> five or six digits of precision? Hm.

"Strange but true".  It seems to be in the arithmetic for the case 
of one independent variable and one instrument.

nulldata 50
genr x = normal()
genr y = normal()
genr z = normal()
ols y 0 x
ols x 0 z --quiet
genr xhat = $coeff(const) + $coeff(z)*z
ols y 0 xhat
genr yhat = $coeff(const) + $coeff(xhat)*x
R2 = corr(y, yhat)^2

"R2" is numerically identical to the R^2 from the first OLS.  
Left as an exercise: prove that this is always the case.

Allin.

Reply via email to