I know I only have a bachelor's degree in Music, but I did fairly well in
my theory and analysis classes so I'm wondering if I'm correct or wrong in
this assumption:
When auditions call for the exposition only for a Mozart concerto, it's
fairly easy to determine what they mean with the 1st and 2nd concertos.
However with the 3rd concerto, I was always unsure about playing the very
short
segment of the introduction which is present in at least the Schirmer
editions, and so the last few times I played it on a recital I only started
playing at what was obviously the exposition (introduction of the theme) and
let
the piano or whoever play the full introduction. I could have been wrong,
but it was just something I felt was a better way to perform it - why give
away the show before the theme starts? Most concerti in the classical
period don't let the soloist play until the introduction of the theme and
maybe
it was some joke by Mozart so that the performer could make sure the right
crook was in? Or maybe the act of buzzing a few very quiet notes on the
horn before you actually play is something Mozart noticed only horn players
doing and wanted to make it part of the concerto? Either way, maybe I'm
crazy, but it just seems odd for it to be written that way.
Of course, for the 4th concerto, the introduction is the longest and the
horn passage in the introduction of the first movement at least to me sticks
out like a sore thumb. So, why is it in there? To me, the theme and
exposition doesn't start until the horn player plays the Bb arpeggio on whole
notes, so why not just omit that section for performances and auditions?
You're
in unison with the violins or piano anyway.
I'm not a historian, and I don't want to start some huge argument. I could
be completely wrong about my ideas, but maybe I'm not the only one who saw
the introduction passages for the Horn as out of place? Is this an
incorrect assumption?
-William
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