Maybe you can help me reword it. What I am getting at is this:
a) within the home, in the example in figure 3, I have four routers
and nine IP subnets. For each router to know where in the home to send
data, the usual thing is for the routers in the home to do is
communicate with the others using a routing protocol.
b) there are two CPE routers, each of which has an upstream router in
its ISP. Since they are not exchanging a routing protocol with their
upstream, they will need a static route in their own tables and to
advertise a default upstream route within the home.
c) RFC 3704 observes on the ingress filtering performed in the
upstream routers, and suggests that the two CPE routers should have
some way to ensure that they only send traffic that will pass the
filter to their upstream. Hence, each CPE Router might have a filter
installed that looks at the source address of a datagram and when
necessary forwards it to the other CPE. Or if we had source/
destination routing, could advertise the relevant prefix with its
default route, so that the three routers (not CPE routers, just plain
old routers, but probably with a firewall filter configured due to the
observation about corporate information security policies applying to
telecommuting home offices) would be able to send traffic to the right
CPE.
How would you suggest I word this? In my mind, taking what is written
there and confusing it with the relationship with the upstream ISP
requires a strange reading of the text, which is all about routing
within the home.
On Jul 28, 2009, at 3:51 PM, Azinger, Marla wrote:
Fred: Here is the paragraph that is worded in a way that leads me
to thinking you are saying to do OSPF to the upstream. I believe
something needs to be taken out or added to clarify it:
Routing in such an environment calls for a routing protocol such as
RIPv6 [RFC2080], IS-IS [RFC5308], or OSPF [RFC5340]. In addition,
each CPE router will need to install a static default route upstream
and advertise a default route in the chosen routing protocol. The
issues raised in [RFC3704] also apply, meaning that the two CPE
routers may each need to observe the source addresses in datagrams
they handle to divert them to the other CPE to handle upstream
-----Original Message-----
From: Azinger, Marla
Sent: Tuesday, July 28, 2009 4:25 AM
To: 'Fred Baker'
Cc: IETF IPv6 Mailing List; draft-ietf-v6ops-ipv6-cpe-rou...@tools.ietf.org
; draft-donley-ipv6-cpe-rtr-use-cases-and-r...@tools.ietf.org
Subject: RE: Comments on IPv6 Prefix Subdelegation
Im thinking one step further than the double routers. For example
if these routers are not serviced by something at least the service
type of a dedicated T1 to each router then they would be doing VPN.
So there are more requirements that need to be met here to make OSPF
a realistic option.
Thank you
Marla
-----Original Message-----
From: Fred Baker [mailto:f...@cisco.com]
Sent: Tuesday, July 28, 2009 2:59 AM
To: Azinger, Marla
Cc: IETF IPv6 Mailing List; draft-ietf-v6ops-ipv6-cpe-rou...@tools.ietf.org
; draft-donley-ipv6-cpe-rtr-use-cases-and-r...@tools.ietf.org
Subject: Re: Comments on IPv6 Prefix Subdelegation
On Jul 28, 2009, at 11:39 AM, Azinger, Marla wrote:
2. I have concern regarding the suggestions in section 2.3 Am I
interpreting this correctly that you are suggesting upstreams do OSPF
over VPN with residential customers?
within their homes?
No, I am suggesting that in a home that has more than one router,
one might want an IGP, just like one does in other places.
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