With minor modifications I was able to achieve my goal with the sample
code that you provided. So that I do not feel compelled to ask this
question could you confirm or disconfirm whether the below statement
is correct.
In order to create a jQuery method from a JavaScript function not
encoded in jQuery perform the following transformation.
(function($) {
$.fn.nameOfFunction = function( ) {JSCode}
})(jQuery);
where nameOfFunction is the name of the JavaScript function not
encoded in jQuery, and
where JSCode is the code block of nameOfFunction
If this is correct, then is the following statement also true?
It is correct to employ a function written in JavaScript, but not
encoded as a jQuery method in a jQuery function provided that it is
not called by a jQuery method or function?
I ask this because the following worked code worked:
$(document).ready(function() {
startTime();
$('#today').toDate();
});
where toDate() is my new jQuery method,
and where startTime() is a JS function not encoded as a jQuery method.
Roddy
