So in the previous instance you have the x1 place as zo'e (and thus taken to
be from the previous sentence) and then you fill in the x2 place as being lo
mi zdani. To make a silly but more general example, just to make sure I
understand:
mi'o klama lo zdani lo solri xu
might a reasonable answer (ignoring the ridiculousness of the original
question, and the litany of attitudinals that would fly out from the
respondent in reality) be:
go'i fi lo zarci
?
mu'omi'e latros.
2010/3/2 Jorge Llambías <jjllamb...@gmail.com>
> On Tue, Mar 2, 2010 at 4:50 PM, Ian Johnson <blindbrav...@gmail.com>
> wrote:
> > OK. So how does go'i work, exactly, in the case of "go'i lo mi zdani"?
> > Ordinarily it repeats the previous {bridi}, yes, and if you give it an
> > article it can be used to refer back to a particular {sumti} in the
> previous
> > {bridi} (as in, say, le se go'i). But what happens here, logically?
>
> "go'i" is a selbri, so strictly speaking it repeats the selbri of the
> previous bridi, but a selbri can always be a bridi by itself, and the
> missing "zo'e"s are usually taken to be the same arguments as those of
> the previous bridi, so the effect is as if you had repeated the whole
> bridi. But you can always fill any argument of "go'i" with something
> explicit, such as "lo mi zdani", in which case that argument will no
> longer be the corresponding one from the preceding bridi.
>
> mu'o mi'e xorxes
>
>
>
>
