Tony, > > One of the reasons I have read (can't remember where) for the triumph of the > violin family over the gambas is that the tuning in fifths is more suitable > for melody whereas the fourths basis is more suitable for chords. I am not > sure I understood why, but I am sure it was written by someone who did ;-)
I have no idea either why the fifths would be more suitable for melody in general, but one can point out that the step to the next string comes at a natural point in the key. If I'm playing a triad in the tonic a fifth tuning lets me play an open string, then on stop, then the next open. Not having played violin since 1948 (when I was last chair, last stand, in the Summit High School Orchestra) I can't do more than guess. As to the choice, there are no chords on the violin other than the occassional diad. The move might have had to do with the unfretted nature of the instrument, and the easier range of fingering due to the shorter vibrating length (which wouldn't explain the viola, violoncello, or bass - but they could have been followers). > > The provenance (ancestor?) of the lute may well have been a melody > instrument played with a plectrum, but that in itself doesn't explain the > tuning. The oud is still basically tuned in fourths and is still basically > a melody instrument. Yup, it don't. But it is a good matter for speculation. Is the arabic oud, ancestor of the lute we believe, tuned to a tetrachord, or was it tuned for ease of fingering. Any answer would be speculation, I look forward to visiting Roger's site that RT offered. Best, Jon To get on or off this list see list information at http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
