That is exactly right. Any recreation of music would have to have 
been semi intoxicated.

d

At 10:47 AM 12/20/2009, you wrote:
>Actually there is evidence of the opposite.
>Before coffee overtook Europe in 1648, people drank little water (as 
>unsafe), but mostly beer (beer soup as standard European breakfast). 
>So all Europeans were slightly inebriated in their waking hours.
>Caffeine-induced sober stimulatedness was the revolution that begat 
>coffeehouse conversation, which in turm begat Kant and Hamann.
>RT
>
>----- Original Message ----- From: "David Tayler" <vidan...@sbcglobal.net>
>To: "lute-cs.dartmouth.edu" <lute@cs.dartmouth.edu>
>Sent: Sunday, December 20, 2009 1:29 PM
>Subject: [LUTE] Re: another day at the office
>
>
>>
>>>Or evidence that anyone performed sober? Perhaps only on special occasions.
>>
>>d
>>
>>
>>How about the proposition that "there was no church in Italy in the
>>first half of the17th century in which the singers all performed in
>>the nude?" Well.. who knows? But how likely is it?
>>Or evidence that anyone performed sober?
>>
>>
>>
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