That is exactly right. Any recreation of music would have to have been semi intoxicated.
d At 10:47 AM 12/20/2009, you wrote: >Actually there is evidence of the opposite. >Before coffee overtook Europe in 1648, people drank little water (as >unsafe), but mostly beer (beer soup as standard European breakfast). >So all Europeans were slightly inebriated in their waking hours. >Caffeine-induced sober stimulatedness was the revolution that begat >coffeehouse conversation, which in turm begat Kant and Hamann. >RT > >----- Original Message ----- From: "David Tayler" <vidan...@sbcglobal.net> >To: "lute-cs.dartmouth.edu" <lute@cs.dartmouth.edu> >Sent: Sunday, December 20, 2009 1:29 PM >Subject: [LUTE] Re: another day at the office > > >> >>>Or evidence that anyone performed sober? Perhaps only on special occasions. >> >>d >> >> >>How about the proposition that "there was no church in Italy in the >>first half of the17th century in which the singers all performed in >>the nude?" Well.. who knows? But how likely is it? >>Or evidence that anyone performed sober? >> >> >> >>To get on or off this list see list information at >>http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html