This one isn't quite so obscure.  I believe that the "i" spelling came to be in
the 5th century AD (http://www.bartleby.com/65/ve/Vergil.html), when the Aeneid
was used as a sort of magic 8-ball.  People would randomly open the Aeneid and
interpret the first line upon which their eyes fell.  The connection here is
with the "virga" or wand, which was somehow used in this practice.  Also, it
was a symbol of the magician.  In my opinion, the "e" is preferrable, being
that it is closer to his actual name.  For a better explaination, see Pharr's
books 1-6 of the Aeneid, Introduction.

The interesting question, which Emma posed, is why we don't use his cognomen.

Sam Cole
Sophomore, Classics, Reed College
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