--- You wrote: In the case of Vergil, it seems clear (assuming we identify the person named as the poet) that Horace in Odes I.3 calls Vergil "Vergil." So perhaps it is as simple a thing as what people called these writers in ancient times. I doubt that the Romans consistently called all people by one name or the other. --- end of quote ---
Horace and Vergil were relatively well acquainted, weren't they? I know that they had at least met each other, so could it have been a familiar greeting? Maybe our reason for calling them by the familiar name is a search for a closer connection to them. Or maybe I've just fallen off the deep end. -Sam Cole ----------------------------------------------------------------------- To leave the Mantovano mailing list at any time, do NOT hit reply. Instead, send email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] with the message "unsubscribe mantovano" in the body (omitting the quotation marks). You can also unsubscribe at http://virgil.org/mantovano/mantovano.htm#unsub
