There was no fundamental change in the property relations or the instruments of production for that matter after the overthrow of slavery. The South remained more than less unchanged for at least another 50 years. Actually until 1939. The property relations of the Slave holding south were not "slave property relations" but bourgeois property relations carried out and cemented using slaves as value producers. ^^^^^ CB; Wrong again. But that's what we count on you for - to almost have it exactly wrong. Then all we have to do is flip you over on your feet and we have the right answer.
MP: Well Mr. Lawyer . . . stating that something is wrong is one thing. You must prove why something is wrong or at least offer a convincing agrument. .Your dispute is with Marx: Here is what Marx states and it is fairly clear to me. "In the second type of colonies - plantations - where commercial speculation figure from the start and production is intended for the world market, the capitalist mode of production exists, although only in the formal sense, since slavery of Negroes preclude free wage labor, which is the basis of capitalist production. But the business in which slaves are used is conducted by capitalists." The capitalist mode of production means the same as the bourgeois mode of production or bourgeois property relations in the mode of production of material life. Melvin P. _______________________________________________ Marxism-Thaxis mailing list [email protected] To change your options or unsubscribe go to: http://lists.econ.utah.edu/mailman/listinfo/marxism-thaxis
