<<The Supreme Court has said precious little about this, but the Court
has always tied gun ownership to the militia clause.  Until this
summer, that is.>>

The militia connection seems compelling; otherwise, why mention it?
Why not leave the right just as "The right of the people to bear arms
shall not be infringed."?

On the other hand, reading the second amendment this way doesn't mean
that the founding fathers didn't also envision a right for individuals
to bear arms.  They just might have thought it was inconceivable that
the government might try to remove this right.

Remember, our rights are not *limited* to those in the Bill of Rights.
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