On Sat, 28 Apr 2001, Andreas Meyer wrote:
> A question to the routing-experts on the list.
> I have a router with IP 192.168.2.40. The segments 192.168.2.0 and
> 192.168.1.0 are known to him. He is masquerading datagrams that come from
> clients in the 192.168.1.0-segment (for now).
> He is listening on the modem-port for in coming calls.
>
> Now a peer connects a gets 192.168.2.41 by the router. The connecting peer
> also has a private segment with 192.168.1.0.
>
> Now as caller to the router I want to reach the his private segment with
> 192.168.1.0. But when I ping this segment, I ping my own and not the
> routers one.
>
> Is reaching the routers segment in 192.168.1.0 possible at all as long as I
> do have a own 192.168.1.0 segment?
>
> C with 192.168.1.3
> |
> B with 192.168.1.2
> |
> A with 192.168.1.1 and
> with 192.168.2.40 as the router
> with routing-table-entries 192.168.1.0 on eth0 and 192.168.1.0 on eth1
> +
> |
> |
> |
> +
> Y with 192.168.1.2 as the caller witch gets the static IP 192.168.2.40 by
> the router and has routing-table-entry 192.168.1.0
>
> Both the router and the caller are using pppd over a serial line and
> reaching the router and segment 192.168.2.0 is no problem.
>
> I really wonder if this is possible at all with numbers from the private
> address-block....
Obviously if the *same IP* appears in multiple places you can't expect to
win with any software.
If the IPs aren't duplicated, you*might* be able to set this up with some
manual routing entries, but you're really making things more complicated
than they need to be by using the same network in multiple locations.
There are *lots* of private network addresses to choose from - why be so
attached to 192.168.1?
Fred Wright
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