A very simple question:
If I have a table A with PRIMARY KEY K,
and table B which has a column C defined as a FOREIGN KEY F referencing table A.K,
then, I would expect, C can only take a value from those already existing in table A column K.
So, let's assume, for simplicity's sake, table A has only 1 column K which is integer, and row are: 1, 3, 6, 7.
Would it be logical to assume that the column C of the table B cannot have a value of 2, because no such value exists in A.K?
For some reason, in my database no such rule seems to be enforced.
Do you know why?
Thanks.
ZA
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