"Zachary Agatstein" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > A very simple question: > > If I have a table A with PRIMARY KEY K, > and table B which has a column C defined as a FOREIGN KEY F referencing > table A.K, > > then, I would expect, C can only take a value from those already existing in > table A column K. > > So, let's assume, for simplicity's sake, table A has only 1 column K which > is integer, and row are: 1, 3, 6, 7. > > Would it be logical to assume that the column C of the table B cannot have a > value of 2, because no such value exists in A.K?
Yes. > For some reason, in my database no such rule seems to be enforced. > > Do you know why? > Check that type of your tables is InnoDB. -- For technical support contracts, goto https://order.mysql.com/?ref=ensita This email is sponsored by Ensita.net http://www.ensita.net/ __ ___ ___ ____ __ / |/ /_ __/ __/ __ \/ / Victoria Reznichenko / /|_/ / // /\ \/ /_/ / /__ [EMAIL PROTECTED] /_/ /_/\_, /___/\___\_\___/ MySQL AB / Ensita.net <___/ www.mysql.com -- MySQL General Mailing List For list archives: http://lists.mysql.com/mysql To unsubscribe: http://lists.mysql.com/[EMAIL PROTECTED]
