For implicit flow, wouldn't the token be available in the browser
history and could also possibly be bookmarked by accident or on purpose?
If a code is bookmarked, so what? It is only valid for a tiny window
(milliseconds).
Please tell me how a code is more likely to be leaked without a client
secret when it can only be sent via SSL to a validated URL.
On 2/9/2015 4:02 PM, John Bradley wrote:
You are passing code in a query parameter, and without a secret that is more
likely to be leaked than sending token in the fragment directly from the
authorization endpoint to the browser JS in a fragment.
You have several extra round trips for no security benefit. In your case the
code in the query parameter goes from the browser to the redirect endpoint then
must be sent back to the browser, and then to the token endpoint.
So yes using code for that is less secure.
Both rely solely on the registered redirect URI for security, but implicit has
fewer hopes and is more friendly to JS.
John B.
On Feb 9, 2015, at 5:50 PM, Bill Burke <bbu...@redhat.com> wrote:
If you don't have a client secret, why is Javascript-based auth code grant flow
more risky? We also require SSL and valid redirect URI patterns to be
registered for the application. The code can only ever be sent to specific
URLs and can only be used once. CORS origin validation is also an extra step
we do to ensure a rogue javascript app isn't making any code-to-token requests.
I'm just trying to figure out if we missed anything...
On 2/9/2015 3:16 PM, John Bradley wrote:
If you don't have a client secret, or are storing the the client secret in the
Javascrypt, then you are probably more at risk using code than implicit.
Implicit is risky because running a OAuth client in the browser is risky.
Using code in that case makes it no better, and arguably worse.
Perhaps I don't understand the environment.
John B.
On Feb 9, 2015, at 5:05 PM, Bill Burke <bbu...@redhat.com> wrote:
Due to the security risks of implicit Grant flow, our Javascript adapter only
supports Auth Code Grant flow. Our IDP has an extra step of allowing you to
specify a valid CORS origin for an application. Anybody see any problems with
this kind of approach? Implicit Grant Flow just seemed really risky to even
support as a protocol.
On 2/6/2015 4:40 PM, Josh Mandel wrote:
Hi Adam,
I'm not 100% sure what you're envisioning as an alternative to the
implicit flow, but if I'm reading between the lines of your question
correctly, there are two key parts to the answer, because the implicit
flow is designed to accomplish two key goals (vs. the authorization code
grant):
1. Shave off one round-trip HTTP request (the step of exchanging a code
for a token)
2. Avoid unnecessarily leading the token to the client's back-end web server
Goal 1 is straightforward. For goal 2: OAuth2's implicit flow takes
advantage of the fact that a URL's "#hash" is not sent to the server
with an HTTP request. By embedding the token in a "#hash", it won't
inadvertently appear in server logs, for example. So with the implicit
flow, I can (for example) statically host a browser-based app at Amazon
S3 without having access tokens leak to Amazon. (Of course, if your
threat model includes a compromised server, then bets are off on this
point.)
Hope this helps,
-Josh
On Fri, Feb 6, 2015 at 1:27 PM, Adam Lewis
<adam.le...@motorolasolutions.com
<mailto:adam.le...@motorolasolutions.com>> wrote:
Hi,____
__ __
Having spent most of my time with native apps and web apps, I now am
looking at use cases where I need to implement a user-agent-based
app. The Implicit flow seems to be optimized for this.____
__ __
To test my understanding, this flow is for a JavaScript client (or
similar) executing within a web browser.____
__ __
At step (a) the client directs the UA to the authorization server,
but the authorization server redirects the UA to a web-hosted client
resource. Why? It says so that the web-hosted client resources can
push javascript (or other) back into the UA so it can extract the
access token in the fragment; but some sort of javascript is already
running in the browser, since it initiated the authorization request
in the first place. So why this extra step? Why not treat the
javascript client running in the UA like a native app and handle the
redirect uri?____
__ __
I know this was well thought out when the spec was written, so
trying to figure out what I’m missing?____
__ __
__ __
__ __
Tx!
adam____
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JBoss, a division of Red Hat
http://bill.burkecentral.com
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JBoss, a division of Red Hat
http://bill.burkecentral.com
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