"Ryan K. Brooks" wrote: > > Keith Whaley wrote: > > I'm aware of that, Cot, but I wonder from whence it came? > > The U.S. has only used that convention for a reasonably short time ~ > > 10 years maybe? > > Recall that we're still on English units as well.
Tell me what English units from which 1 and 0 (or is it really I and O?) come... Keith > > Had to have had a source, and meant something... > > > > keith > >