On Jun 17, 2014, at 1:40 PM, Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote:

> I wouldn't speculate that Peirce wanted God to be a 'thing-in-itself'. 
> There's no evidence, to my knowledge, of that.

Only reason I bring that up is more because of the place of God in traditional 
Christian theology. My thinking was more that if Peirce did accept a thing in 
itself it’d probably just be God due to creation ex nihilo. I shouldn’t have 
speculated that he actually said anything like that. I’m not aware of anything 
he said pointing in that direction. You’re right that I shouldn’t have said 
that. Or at least put some serious qualifications on it. I was just following 
through the logic of the doctrine such that his more controversial statements 
about God really aren’t that controversial when placed in context.

The question I still have is Peirce’s view of Christology and the persons which 
just isn’t at all clear to me. While I’ve not really read much of his religion 
what I have read just hasn’t gone into those issues. Doing a little googling I 
did find a book that was a conference printing. C.S. Peirce: Categories to 
Constantinople that delves into the issue.

http://www.amazon.com/Peirce-Constantinople-Proceedings-International-Philosophical/dp/9061869390

In that book Gérard Deledalle has a paper, “Peirce, Theologian” that claims 
it’s just the person of the Father to which the quote about existence applies.

God the Father has the reality of Firstness (he ‘is’ but does not exist); while 
the God the Son, although also real as first, did exist as second in the person 
of Jesus; as to the reality of God as thrid or organizer of the world, it is 
personified in the Holy Spirit.

To conclude this first part of my paper, I should like to insist on the 
originality of Peirce’s argument. It is the first argument ever founded on the 
category of possibility whose argumentative scientific expression is neither 
induction (on which all the proofs of the existence of God rest), nor a priori 
deduction. The later is very often used by metaphysicians since Saint Anselm 
and it leads to God’s reality, but a reality which implies ‘existence’ which is 
a terminological contradiction denounced by Peirce and Duns Scotus. Rather, 
Peirce’s argument rests on the retroduction or abduction, the only argument 
which can ‘show’ the reality of God without imposing on God the haecceity of 
existence. A conception which is not incompatible with God’s incarnation as 
second in the historical existence of Jesus Christ, nor with the reality of God 
as first through the mediation of third of the Holy Spirit. (Gérard Deledalle, 
ibid, 142)

I confess I don’t see how this avoids Duns Scotus view that this problem of 
haecceity applies to all three persons and not just the Father. But then I’m 
not theologian and what theology I’ve read of the dual natures of Christ never 
made much logical sense to me. Of course Peirce started out as an Unitarian who 
saw Jesus and the Holy Spirit as first among creatures. While he’d become 
Episcopalian when first married he’d always seemed to have an idiosyncratic of 
it. (He often referred to the Holy Spirit as Mother although of course one 
could argue about the place of Wisdom as divine female in the pre-Christian and 
even early Christian era. I’m not sure that was well understood at the time 
though.)

Deledalle continues on about the controversy between the eastern and western 
churches over the Trinity and suggests Peirce adopts a neoPlatonic solution. 

The position that Peirce was to develop is closer to that of Plotinus than that 
taken by the Councils of Nicea and Constantinople: the Son proceeds from the 
Father out of time, but precedes him in time. He is a hypostasis in the greek 
sense adopted by the eastern church, not a substance in the latin sense of hte 
western church, while possessing both a divine nature and a human nature. The 
procession moves downward: what it gains in multiplicity, it loses in unity: 
the Father is first, the Son is second, the Holy Ghost is third. (ibid 149)

I’m not sure this solves the haecceity problem at all. But I’m even less well 
read on the nuances of ontological difference between the eastern and western 
churches than I am on Peirce’s religion. And of course Scotus was of the west.

He ends with a quote of Peirce’s though that might apply to the issue you 
critiqued my speculation on.

…various great theologians explain that one cannot attribute reason to God, nor 
perception (which always involves an element of surprise and of learning what 
one did not know), and, in short, that “mind” is necessarily…unlike ours [and] 
that it is only negatively…that we can attach any meaning to the Name. (CP 
6.502)

While not properly a explicit thing-in-itself this comes rather close. I say 
that since it seems Peirce’s main criticism of the thing-in-itself is its 
unknowability. Yet if God here is known only negatively then that seems to lead 
to a very similar place as the thing-in-itself. Perhaps we might argue that 
negative theology really is different from what Peirce was addressing relative 
to Kant. Further than negative knowledge is still knowledge. I’m just not 
enough up on the nuances of the issue to be able to weight in there. But I’d be 
very interested in others comments.



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