Thread:
JA:http://permalink.gmane.org/gmane.science.philosophy.peirce/17681

Peircers,

I'm sure we all learned in one place or another that Locke, Berkeley, and Hume
belonged to a group called “The Empiricists” while Descartes, Spinoza, and 
Leibniz
belonged to a group called “The Rationalists”, where “empiricism” and 
“rationalism”
were described or exemplified as positions or tendencies the former and the 
latter,
respectively, bore in common.  That's all very pat, and pat enough to content 
the
mind for a time, but if one gets the idea that thinkers split in their practices
as cleanly and deeply as gradgrinds teach undergrads to categorize their thought
then that would be a mistake.

Consulting my Runes, I find the following definition.

<QUOTE>

Rationalism:  A method, or very broadly, a theory of philosophy,
in which the criterion of truth is not sensory but intellectual
and deductive.  Usually associated with an attempt to introduce
mathematical methods into philosophy, as in Descartes, Leibniz,
and Spinoza.  (Vernon J. Bourke)

The history of rationalism begins with the Eleatics (q.v.),
Pythagoreans, and Plato (q.v.) whose theory of the self-sufficiency
of reason became the leitmotif of neo-Platonism and idealism (q.v.).

</QUOTE>

I will try to remember that people still attach those meanings to the
word “rationalism” but I'm pretty sure I never thought of empiricism
and rationalism as “never the twain shall meet” ways of approaching
the world.  So I'll take a cue from the passage that Clark quoted,
and call the brand of rationalism that Peirce deprecated by the
name of “philosophical rationalism”.  Personally, I have never
found much use for it, but I don't have much use for any ism
that is taken to such extremes that it become a religion,
so there is nothing very surprising about that.

Regards,

Jon

--

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