Mike, List:

I am not sure that either "subsumes" or "synonymous/equivalent" is the
right word here.  According to Peirce's overall architectonic, the
Categories come from phenomenology/phaneroscopy (cf. CP 1.280), which is
more fundamental than logic as semeiotic, which in turn is more fundamental
than metaphysics.  In fact, phenomenology/phaneroscopy is the *most*
fundamental of the positive sciences, so it is not surprising that the
Categories permeate all of the others, including *both *semeiotic and
metaphysics.  Note that in this context, "X is more fundamental than Y"
means that Y depends on X for its principles, and not the other way around
(cf. CP 1.180).  "Normative science rests largely on phenomenology and on
mathematics; metaphysics on phenomenology and on normative science." (CP
1.186)

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

On Fri, Oct 20, 2017 at 3:36 PM, Michael Bergman <m...@mkbergman.com> wrote:

> Hi Edwina,
>
> On 10/20/2017 2:45 PM, Edwina Taborsky wrote:
>
>> Mike - here, I strongly disagree with you, when you wrote:
>>
>> Your comment ' we need to talk about signs when our discourse is
>> representation'...is something that is very common in the semiological
>> world, but is, I suggest, invalid in the Peircean world.
>>
>
> Please. Forget the labels and the easy dismissal that I have engaged in
> some Saussurean fallacies here.
>
> All I am suggesting is to focus on the "nature of the object," which I
> don't think I or Peirce would say is the same as the "nature of the sign".
>
> What I have tried to suggest is that the more fundamental "Peircean"
> interpretation comes from the lens of the universal categories, which, by
> the nature of usage and wealth of terminology, subsumes the notion of
> semeiosis. 1ns, 2ns and 3ns provide a richer pool of concepts for
> investigating metaphysical questions than does the terminology of
> representation (signs). Otherwise, why does Peirce ever use them?
>
> None of this is to say the I like the child better than the parent or vice
> versa, just that the universal categories are best suited to questions of
> metaphysics, semiosis to sign representations.
>
> As an exercise, please just answer this three-choice question:
>
> A. Peirce's semiosis subsumes the idea of his universal categories
>
> B. Peirce's universal categories subsume the idea of his semiosis
>
> C. Peirce's semiosis is synonomous with/equivalent to the universal
> categories.
>
> I don't believe that picking B requires me to burn at the stake. ;)
>
> Mike
>
> Semiosis and signs are NOT about 'representation' but about the
>> true nature of reality and actuality - both of which function only within
>> semiosis, which is to say, within the triadic Sign. Therefore - metaphysics
>> and the 'true nature of Objects' is the real topic of discourse within any
>> examination of Signs.
>>
>> That blueprint, as  a rhematic iconic sinsign - is its semiosic
>> definition as AN OBJECT. Nothing to do with 'representation' of the
>> blueprint, but everything to do with defining its nature as an object.
>>  With defining how it exists and how we interact with it.
>>
>> Edwina
>>
>
> --
> __________________________________________
>
> Michael K. Bergman
> Cognonto Corporation
> 319.621.5225
> skype:michaelkbergman
> http://cognonto.com
> http://mkbergman.com
> http://www.linkedin.com/in/mkbergman
> __________________________________________
>
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