Bernard, the “converse” you refer to, stated exactly, would be that what is or is not true of the world of existences can be scientifically stated without the help of mathematical reasoning.
You are asking whether we can “ascertain” that. Well, there is a cedar tree just outside the window next to me as I write this. This is true of the world of existences, and I have stated it without the help of mathematical reasoning. One example should suffice — unless you define “scientifically stated” in such a way as to exclude reports of direct observation, or else define “mathematical reasoning” in a way that includes direct observation. So which of those equally far-fetched definitions are you going to resort to, in order to prove your point? Gary f. From: peirce-l-requ...@list.iupui.edu <peirce-l-requ...@list.iupui.edu> On Behalf Of Bernard Morand Sent: 17-Aug-21 14:35 To: peirce-l@list.iupui.edu Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Modeling in Humanities : the case of Peirce's Semiotics.(Part A) List, The quote CP 8.110 (JAS to Robert, below) asserting that "mathematical reasoning ... never reaches any conclusion at all as to what is or is not true of the world existences" is a quasi-truism. But the problem at hand is: Is the converse also true ? That is to say : can we ascertain that the world of existences can be scientifically stated without the help of mathematical reasoning ? My response (and I think Peirce's too) is No. The slides by De Tienne explicitely claim: Yes. Such a standpoint will lead phaneroscopy to limit itself to simple inventories of so called phanerons (see the ADT slide about oenoscopy, a kind of study which has been known under the label of comparativism in Human Sciences before the arrival of Structuralism) B. Morand
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