Apologies if this went out before, we've been having email problems and I don't see it in any of the digests, so I'll send it again: Hi Trond, I asked if it were true "that the EEA gives Norwegians the right to work anywhere in the EEA (which the FTA did not)", and you reply that that is true, but that it's still true that "the parliamentary majority/gvt. was so eager to get us in (to the EEA) that they sold out for nothing in return!" You base this on a calculation of net benefit and unemployment (and migration "until now"), a calculation which of course depends on how you weight the elements. Judged from the point of view of an individual in Europe, who now has the expanded opportunity to work in Norway (relatively speaking, no big deal for most, I would say), compared to an individual in Norway, who now has the opportunity to work anywhere in Europe, I would conclude that the individual in Norway has gained a lot more than the individual in Europe. What do you think? Regards, Rick
