Would somebody explain to me how this discussion is going beyond the old Indian mode of production debate? Assume that that southern US in the early 19th C. were a separate country. Being basically a slave economy, it would not seem like a capitalist economy -- looking at the US by itself. From the perspective of the world economy as a whole, the US South was supplying one of the basic "fuels" of capitalism -- making it into a capitalist economy. One of the most attractive aspects of Capital was a principle that Marx violated himself: capitalists and workers were "character masks"; i.e. they played out a role given to them, like actors in a play -- moral outrage was not the appropriate perspective. Marx, being human, could not avoid expressing his own moral outrage, nonetheless. -- Michael Perelman Economics Department California State University Chico, CA 95929 Tel. 530-898-5321 E-Mail [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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