Post argues that because  plantation slavery was incompatible with
agrarian petty capitalism in the two decades before the Civil War,
plantation slavery  became the major impediment to the further
development of capitalism in the rest of the USA.

I find the following premises unsubstantiated: the development of
agrarian petty production was the key to the further development of
capitalism, specifically machino-facture, in the rest of the USA, and
this key role of agrarian petty petty production was quite clear as
early as two decades before the Civil War.

Lenin thought that the break of the Southern plantations allowed for the
development of open competition between small farmers and the consequent
emergence of large scale firms on the basis of competitive technical
foundations. This was the American path to capitalism, more dynamic and
technically progressive than the Prussian road (the Junkers were not
expropriated and thus remained in control of large, technically stagnant
farms based on the use of formally unfree labor). Post obviously does
not locate the dynamism in the post plantation South (Bowman's criticism
of Lenin on this point seems quite right) but in Midwestern family
farming. He has thus presented a qualified Leninist view of the American
path as the truly revolutionary road to capitalism.

I however do not think the evidence which he presents in this essay for
said implicit premise is very strong at all. Post indicates that the
evidence for this claim is in another essay which I have not yet read.
But beyond the reaper we're not given strong evidence for either the the
time period in which the Midwestern family farmer began to provide
strong demand for Northern industry or the depth of the market which the
family farm provided.

Moreover, note that Post endows small petty agrarian producers with
technological  dynamism. But since they already own their  main means of
production--the land--they wouldn't necessarily have to be market
competitive in the way that Brenner and Wood underline. Hence, his
relation to the Brenner thesis is unclear. He is not talking about the
dynamism which a capitalist tenant has to display in order to hold on to
a lease. Again I just don't see how Post's underlying framework is
Brenner's.

Moreover, note that Marx himself thought that the petty producer and
independent peasant were an impediment to capitalist development, not an
impetus. That is,
Post through a modification of Lenin seems to  have reached a conclusion
exactly opposite to that of Marx's.

"Two different aspects must be distinguished here.

First, There are the colonies proper, such as in the US, Australia,
etc.Here the mass of the farming colonists, although they bring with
them a larger or smaller amount of capital from the motherland, are not
*capitalists*, nor do they carry on capitalist production. They are are
more or less peasants who work themselves and whose main object, in the
first place, is to produce *their own livlihood, their means of
subsistence. Their main product does not become a *commodity*, and is
not intended for trade. They sell or exchange the excess of their
product over their own consumption for imported mgf commodities, etc.
The other, smaller section of the colonists who settler near the sea,
navigable rivers, etc. form trading towns. There is no question of
capitalist here either. Even if capitalist production gradually comes
into being, so that the sale of his products and the profit he makes
from this sale become decisive for the farmer who himself works and owns
his land: so long, as comparedwith capital and labour, land still exists
in elemental abundance providing a practically unlimited field of
action, the first type of colonisation will continue as well and
production will therefore *never* be regualted according to the needs of
the market--at a given market value. Everything the colonists of the
first type produce *over and above* their immediate consumption, they
will throw on the market and sell at any price that will bring in more
than their wages. They are, and continue for a lon gtime to be,
competitors of the farmers who are already producing more or less
capitalistically, and thus keep the market price of the agricultural
product *below* its value...

"In the second type of colonies--plantations--where commercial
speculations figure from the start  and production is intended for the
world market, the capitalist mode of production exists, although only in
a formal sense, sicne the slavery of Negroes precludes free wage
labour,which is the basis of capitalist production. But the business in
which slaves are used is conducted by *capitalists*. The method of
production, which they introduce has not arised out of slavery but is
grafted on to it. In this case the same person is capitaist and
landowner. And the *elemental* [profusion] existence of the land
confronting capital and albour does not offer any resistance to capital
investment, hence none to the competition between capitals. Neither does
a class of farmers as distinct from landlords develop here. So long as
these conditions endure, nothing will stand in the way of cost price [by
which we understand price of production--rb] regulating market value."

TSV, part II Moscow, pp. 301-3

As far as I know, Post does not discuss this passage, much less the
logic of Marx's argument. Even if petty agrarian producers served as a
deep market for consumer goods--and Post's evidence is not strong in
this article--they would have undermined capitalism in the way that Marx
specifies above.

Again I think the problem remains in trying to seeing the impetus of the
early development of capitalism in small men who accumulate patiently
and build up the world market.  As I understand Marx, this is exactly
the nursery rhyme about capital's origins that he was attempting to expose!

Rakesh



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