Does anyone know of an article (or book) that argues that "the neoclassical theory of normal profits explains why they equalize between markets but not why they are positive"? I know that it's a common assertion among Marxian political economists (and true), but has anyone argued for it at length?
-- Jim Devine / "Segui il tuo corso, e lascia dir le genti." (Go your own way and let people talk.) -- Karl, paraphrasing Dante. _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
