There is plenty of evidence/arguments why colonialism subverted vigorous
capital accumulation in India. And the "drain" (see Bagchi and others for
estimates of flows to GB) certainly facilitated industrialization and
pauperization in geographically distinct but tightly interlinked places.
More contemporary question, in which I am involved in a collective project,
is why there is no agrarian transition in India but India is capitalist by
any account.

Anthony

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Anthony P. D'Costa, Chair & Professor of Contemporary Indian Studies
Australia India Institute and School of Social & Political Sciences
University of Melbourne, 147-149 Barry Street, Carlton VIC 3053, AUSTRALIA
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On Wed, Apr 29, 2015 at 1:47 AM, Charlie <[email protected]> wrote:

> Anthony wrote:
>  >
> This is known as Eurocentrism
> <
>
> Nothing is wrong with Euro-centrism when the question is: How did some
> agrarian societies give rise to capitalism? It happened in Europe.
>
> Okay, that is a provocative remark. Part of the answer to the above
> question must examine why other agrarian societies did not. There are
> fascinating studies, for example, of the large amount of petty capital
> in Song dynasty China - involving maybe 20 to 25 percent of the economy
> - yet the key feature of the capitalist mode of production, most
> production by wage labor, did not happen. Pre-capitalist forms of
> exploitation of the peasants, who remained the main producing class,
> stood strong.
>
> But the crucial changes in Europe and the crucial absence of such change
> in China occurred before the phenomena debated by Brenner and critics
> like Louis P.
>
> Charles Andrews
> announcement for my new book: http://www.hollowcolossus.com
>
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