On 11-11-18 12:40 AM, Robert Cummings wrote:
On 11-11-17 06:24 PM, Fredric L. Rice wrote:
Consider this -- do you think the second before
the "Big Bang" was negative or null?
I don't know. There's no point concerning ourselves
with unanswerable questions.
The question itself is a logical absurdity since there was no time prior
to the Big Bang. The advent of time began when the dimention we perceive
as the passage of time froze out of folded reality during the expansion
phases's symmertry breaking period, there is not only no answer to what
happened before, even suggesting there *was* a before is not possible.
It's another nail in the coffin of deity constructors.
By you're reasoning since I did not exist before 1974 then time itself
could not possibly have existed before then either since I was not in
existence to perceive it. That's as ludicrous as suggesting time did not
exist before the big bang (presuming this model is correct). Also,
them's some fancy shmancy words you're slinging about up there, but
without a proof it's just farts in the wind :) No more valid than a
theory of creation or the big ass spaghetti thingy majingy dude. Folded
shmeality and phases of whatsyamacallit may well be true, but
provability of the non-existence of time before the big bang theory is
not provable by this model. However, what is valid is to take a point of
reference in time and infer a period before it. Thus before the big bang
is perfectly valid whether we could perceive it or not.
The following pretty much sums up the entire argument:
http://shorl.com/tebrakefesahe
Cheers,
Rob.
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