I'm not sure I understand the expressive association theory. Is it that the legal system has a positive obligation to make actionable false statements about others' associations? I had not thought that the First Amendment *obligates* the government to punish private speech (even false speech).
Damage to reputation is, as I understand it, the very premise behind defamation law. A statement can be defamatory only if can be presumed to harm another's reputation (for instance, if it accuses someone of crime) or if it is shown to have actually harmed the person's reputation. False light invasion of privacy law allows people to recover without a showing of injury to reputation; injury to feelings is enough. But there the statement has to be highly offensive to a reasonable person. As to whether the matter should be decided by the judge or the jury, I leave that to experts in defamation and false light law (or, better yet, Florida defamation and false light law). Eugene Louise Weinberg writes: Could one argue that the court in this case in effect coerced this association upon the plaintiff, in disregard of her freedom of expressive association? And in effect perhaps coerced a confession of faith which is not hers, in disregard of her religious freedom? You raise the interesting question of damages to reputation. I did not understand that this was an element of the tort ~ I had always thought nominal damages could be awarded. But I don't know much about tort law. If you are right, arguably there could still be substantial injury to reputation in such a case. It might even be defamatory to call someone in this country an "atheist," depending on the factual setting (suppose plaintiff is running for office). To a radical Islamist, I am told, "Christian" = "infidel" = one of the gravest insults known to Islam, which might place the "infidel" at some risk for her safety. Or, if the woman plaintiff in this case were an extremely traditional Jew, her friends might treat her as one dead to them, and, even having heard her protestations to the contrary, might never again regain full confidence in her. But would it, perhaps, be the better rule to regard such questions as questions of fact for the jury, not to be determined as a matter of law? Among the relevant facts, I should think, might be how "core" not subscribing to the ascribed faith might be to the traditions of one's own. Among some Jews, I have been told that a "core" item of their idea of Jewishness is not believing in Jesus. _______________________________________________ To post, send message to [EMAIL PROTECTED] To subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw