I'm afraid I still don't quite get it.  The core of the
argument, it seems to me, is that "There has been an on-going debate
among Christian groups regarding the matter of women clergy.  For the
state to choose one side in that debate is to make precisely what I said
-- an unavoidable theological judgment -- in a highly contentious
matter.  The government winds up taking sides in a matter of which that
it is better advised to steer clear."  But the same is true of a vast
range of religious decisions.  There are or were on-going debates among
groups about race discrimination in student policies (Bob Jones), about
the advisability of participating in electoral politics (Branch
Ministries, the D.C. Cir. [?] case), about sex and religious
discrimination in choice of students (generally in the K-12 religious
school choice context) and more.

        The state chooses sides in that debate, especially when it comes
to participation in state-provided policies, all the time.  Can it
really be that each such decision involves a forbidden "theological
judgment"?  That argument, I think, was made in Bob Jones, and rejected;
the Court pointed out that the fact that the government's policies match
the views of some religions (e.g., no race discrimination) doesn't make
them impermissible establishments of religion.

        I actually agree that clergy selection should be different, when
government regulation is involved; I tentatively suspect otherwise as to
funding, though I'd be happy to be persuaded that I'm mistaken on this.
But I don't see how one can just say that it's different because the
government policies involve "an unavoidable theological judgment" (which
presumably would mean that they're per se unconstitutional, without even
a strict scrutiny escape hatch) -- the policies seem to involve the same
sort of judgments about, say, protecting people's economic opportunities
(clergy is a paying job, after all) or preventing tax money raised from
taxpayers of all races and sexes being used to subsidize race or sex
discrimination.

        Eugene

> -----Original Message-----
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
> Newsom Michael
> Sent: Monday, March 06, 2006 9:59 AM
> To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> Subject: RE: 
> StateRFRAandnonreligiousgroupsthathaveconscientiousobjectionst
> oantidiscriminationlaws
> 
> 
> The question is really not about discrimination at all.  It 
> is about discrimination in the selection of clergy, and not 
> about some "vast range" of government decisions.  Context 
> matters.  I have not taken a position on the balance to be 
> struck between discrimination and other kinds of 
> decision-making by religious groups.
> 
> The ministerial exception recognizes the special, if not 
> unique, character of the selection of clergy.  That, it seems 
> to me, calls into serious question a decision by a government 
> to deny a benefit to a religious group that only accepts male clergy.
> 
> And, by the way, a closer examination of the context strongly 
> suggests that a "neutral" application of a "general" statute 
> on the question of the selection of Christian clergy, at 
> least, is anything but neutral. There has been an on-going 
> debate among Christian groups regarding the matter of women 
> clergy.  For the state to choose one side in that debate is 
> to make precisely what I said -- an unavoidable theological judgment
> -- in a highly contentious matter.  The government winds up 
> taking sides in a matter of which that it is better advised 
> to steer clear.
> 
> There can be no broad, bright-line rule here.  Nobody would 
> argue for an anti-discrimination principle prohibits ALL 
> forms and types of discrimination.  People can discriminate 
> in the selection of a spouse, for example.  Or, would it be 
> proper for the state to deny, say, social security or other 
> benefits to those who discriminate against people with green 
> hair in the selection of a spouse?  I don't think so.  The 
> particular facts associated with the selection of clergy, it 
> seems to me, control the particular and specific question. 
> 
> One final point: to deny a benefit is, UNDER THESE 
> CIRCUMSTANCES, a rank interference with religion and thus a 
> violation the nonestablishment principle.
> 
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Volokh, Eugene [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] 
> Sent: Friday, March 03, 2006 3:40 PM
> To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> Subject: RE: 
> StateRFRAandnonreligiousgroupsthathaveconscientiousobjectionst
> oantidiscr
> iminationlaws
> 
>       Now this I'm not sure I quite grasp.  Why is the 
> state's judgment that the Catholic Church discriminates based 
> on sex in hiring clergy -- followed by the application of a 
> (hypothetical) generally applicable rule that 
> sex-discriminatory groups aren't entitled to tax exemption (a 
> rule, incidentally, that I wouldn't endorse as a policy
> matter) -- an "unavoidably theological judgment"?  The Church 
> is neither secretive nor ambiguous in its men-only rule for 
> the priesthood.
> 
>       It's true that the state's decision would contradict 
> the Church's theological views, but that's true of a vast 
> range of state decisions.  And it's true that the Church has 
> a constitutional right to discriminate in choice of clergy; 
> yet the government is not obligated to subsidize the exercise 
> of constitutional rights.
> 
>       Eugene
> 
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
> > Newsom Michael
> > Sent: Friday, March 03, 2006 12:09 PM
> > To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> > Subject: RE: State 
> > RFRAandnonreligiousgroupsthathaveconscientiousobjectionstoanti
> > discriminationlaws
> > 
> > 
> > In this particular, specific instance, I believe that the
> > answer is "yes."  Otherwise, the state winds up making what 
> > are essentially and unavoidably theological judgments.  That 
> > is not true in the other examples that you give.
> > 
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Volokh, Eugene [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > Sent: Friday, March 03, 2006 2:25 PM
> > To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> > Subject: RE: State RFRA 
> > andnonreligiousgroupsthathaveconscientiousobjectionstoantidisc
> > rimination
> > laws
> > 
> >     I actually agree that religious groups should have a
> > right to discriminate in choice of clergy, much as 
> > nonreligious groups should generally have a right to 
> > discriminate in choice of leaders, speakers, and members (see 
> > Boy Scouts v. Dale).  (The precise contours of the two rights 
> > may be somewhat different, but the underlying reasons for 
> > them, and their existence, are in my view quite related.)  
> > Yet the question still remains whether the government has an 
> > obligation to help subsidize this discriminatory practice, by 
> > waiving nondiscrimination conditions attached to various 
> > benefits (e.g., tax exemptions) that the groups seek.
> > 
> > > -----Original Message-----
> > > From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of
> > > Newsom Michael
> > > Sent: Friday, March 03, 2006 11:21 AM
> > > To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> > > Subject: RE: State RFRA 
> > > andnonreligiousgroupsthathaveconscientiousobjections 
> > > toantidiscrimination laws
> > > 
> > > 
> > > My point is that the ministerial exception should be
> > broadly construed
> > > and applied.   In the specific context of clergy, the state 
> > should not
> > > quickly or easily claim that a religious organization is 
> ineligible 
> > > for a subsidy if it is guilty of what the state claims is 
> > > discrimination.
> > > 
> > > The question is not really about discrimination, it is about 
> > > discrimination in the context of selecting clergy.  
> Because of this, 
> > > then there are some serious First Amendment issues that 
> have to be 
> > > considered.  Hence a liberal and broad application of the 
> exception 
> > > seems to make sense.
> > > 
> > > If the question were about child marriage, or renting 
> apartments the 
> > > result might be different.  Surely there is something 
> rather unique 
> > > and special about the relation between a religious 
> community and its 
> > > clergy, something not found in your examples.
> > > 
> > > -----Original Message-----
> > > From: Volokh, Eugene [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > Sent: Friday, March 03, 2006 12:23 PM
> > > To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
> > > Subject: RE: State RFRA and
> > > nonreligiousgroupsthathaveconscientiousobjections to 
> > > antidiscrimination laws
> > > 
> > >   Well, I was using the secular law definition of discrimination, 
> > > which (at least insofar as it's relevant
> > > here) is pretty much Stevens's test in Manhart:  Does the
> > > institution "treat[] a person in a manner which but for that 
> > > person's sex would be different"?  If Jesus Christ 
> > > deliberately chose only men as apostles, then that was 
> > > discrimination -- obviously not illegal either then or now 
> > > (now because they weren't paid, and thus weren't his 
> > > employees), but that's a separate question than whether it's 
> > > discrimination.  By way of analogy, consider a landlord who 
> > > refuses to rent to unmarried couples or same-sex couples, 
> > > because he believes that renting to them would constitute 
> > > aiding and abetting fornication or homosexual conduct.  He 
> > > may not see his conduct as discrimination, just as compliance 
> > > with God's will.  Yet discrimination it is.
> > > 
> > >   Nor am I quite sure why it would be unconstitutional
> > > for the state to "indulge in" or "act upon" such statements
> > > (i.e., that selecting priests based on sex is 
> > > discrimination).  If the claim is that it expresses 
> > > disapproval of a faith to condemn as illegal conduct that 
> > > mirrors what the faith's holy figures do, that can't be quite 
> > > right. That Jesus was said to have driven the moneylenders 
> > > from the Temple doesn't mean that such conduct would be 
> > > constitutionally protected if conducted by a religious person 
> > > (or a church official or even a self-described Messiah) 
> > > today.  Mohammed's marriage to a child bride may have been 
> > > perfectly proper by the standards of the time and place in 
> > > which he lived, but it doesn't mean that secular law can't 
> > > ban it today; it can ban it, even if such conduct is being 
> > > performed as a religious sacrament.
> > > 
> > >   If the claim is that denying subsidies to a religious 
> group because 
> > > it fails to satisfy a general condition attached to subsidy is 
> > > unconstitutional or a RFRA violation, that's less 
> implausible.  Yet 
> > > I wonder why we should take this view.  The government subsidizes 
> > > all sorts of things because of its own reasons.  It subsidizes 
> > > public schools, but not private religious schools, even though 
> > > educating one's child in a pervasively religious 
> atmosphere may be a
> > > sacrament to some people.  It subsidizes child care, but not 
> > > people who stay home to raise their children, even though 
> > > that's a sacrament to some people, too.  It subsidizes 
> > > (through tax exemption) nonlobbying, nonelectioneering 
> > > nonprofit speech but not lobbying or electioneering nonprofit 
> > > speech. Why can't it equally choose to subsidize those 
> > > nonprofits that don't discriminate, but not those that do 
> > > discriminate (even though the latter may have a 
> > > constitutional right to discriminate, just as parents have 
> > > the right to send their kids to private schools, and just as 
> > > groups have the right to lobby or electioneer)?
> > > 
> > >   Eugene
> > > 
> > > Michael Newsom writes:
> > > 
> > > > 1) To say that a religious organization chooses its clergy 
> > > > "discriminatorily" requires some serious and sober
> > consideration of
> > > > the theology of that organization.  The exemption ought to apply
> > > > broadly if only to keep secular entities out of an area in 
> > > which they
> > > > have precious little expertise (quite apart from any
> > > consideration of
> > > > any constitutional norms).  To say that the refusal to
> > ordain women
> > > > is "discrimination" without consideration of the 
> context begs the
> > > > question. One could just as easily say that Jesus Christ 
> > > > discriminated against women by only choosing men as 
> > apostles.  For
> > > > the state to indulge in such statements -- and to act
> > upon them --
> > > > is precisely what the Religion Clauses prohibit.  To subsidize
> > > > religious organizations that ordain women and to refuse 
> > to subsidize
> > > > religious organizations that do not is to establish a
> > preference for
> > > > some religions over others. Doesn't that offend the
> > > > non-establishment principle?  If, of course, one chooses not 
> > > > to recognize that religion and religious institutions occupy 
> > > > a special place in the constitutional order, then perhaps the 
> > > > violation is not so clear.  But it is a mistake not to 
> > > > recognize the special constitutional importance of religion, 
> > > > and hence, a mistake not to recognize that such differential 
> > > > treatment offends the principle. 
> > > _______________________________________________
> > > To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
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> > > _______________________________________________
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