It seems difficult to find an equal protection violation if the Court is
merely enforcing the contract.  It seems to me that a more likely
constitutional objection would be that the contract cannot be enforced
without running afoul of the neutral principles doctrine.  Can a court make
a decision about who is or is not a Muslim without making theological
choices?  Would a shia muslim be acceptable?  A member of the nation of
Islam?
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William & Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

"I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken." -Oliver Cromwell


On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 10:06 AM, Volokh, Eugene <vol...@law.ucla.edu> wrote:

> That’s the issue lurking in *In re Aramco Servs. 
> Co.*<http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=11521915190435651264>,
> now on appeal to the Texas Supreme Court. DynCorp and Aramco Services (both
> of which were at the time Delaware corporations headquartered in Houston,
> though Aramco Services is a subsidiary of Saudi 
> Aramco<https://www.aramcoservices.com/about/>,
> the Saudi government’s oil company) signed an agreement under which DynCorp
> was to create a computer system (in the U.S.) and install it at Aramco’s
> Saudi facilities. The contract provided that it was to be interpreted under
> Saudi law, and arbitrated under Saudi arbitration rules and regulations.
> Those rules and regulations apparently call for the arbitrators to be Muslim
> Saudi citizens. The trial court, however, appointed a three-arbitrator panel
> consisting of a Muslim (apparently a Saudi) and two non-Muslim non-Saudis.
> Aramco appealed, arguing that (1) under the contract the arbitrators were
> not supposed to be appointed by a court, and, (2) in the alternative, that
> the court erred in appointing non-Muslim non-Saudis.
>
>
>
> The Texas Court of Appeals agreed with Aramco on item 1, and therefore
> didn’t reach item 2. But there is an interesting constitutional issue
> lurking in the background: If a contract does call for a court to appoint
> arbitrators, and provides that the arbitrators must be Muslims (or Jews or
> Catholics or what have you), may a court implement that provision, or does
> the First Amendment or the Equal Protection Clause bar the court — a
> government entity — from discriminating based on religion this way, even
> pursuant to a party agreement?  Any thoughts on this?
>
>
>
> Eugene
>
>
>
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