I think the assumption is, that opposite-sex couples are "expected" to have 
children in the "normal" way, while same-sex couples cannot. This is a poor 
assumption. My point is that with increasing frequency straight couples cannot, 
which puts them (us) in the same predicament as same-sex couples. 

With increasing frequency, same-sex couples choose to raise a family -- by 
whatever means, and I think that our reasonable observer realizes this, and it 
will soon become a normal expectation if it hasn't already. Just like straight 
folks. I think that the "conjugal" view is actually elastic enough to 
incorporate this. In any case I do not see exclusionary language in the 
definition. 

Thanks again. 

-Z 


----- Original Message -----
From: "Mark Scarberry" <mark.scarbe...@pepperdine.edu> 
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu 
Sent: Wednesday, July 3, 2013 9:12:14 PM 
Subject: Re: Marriage -- the Alito dissent 


The biological issues with regard to different sex couples mostly can be 
answered fairly easily, I think, including with these points: 


With regard to medical or similar issues that prevent procreation, a state 
inquiry would intrude substantially on privacy, which would justify the state 
in not inquiring. (Also, some couples who have given up on conceiving, later 
are surprised to find that they have.) 


With regard to age, no bright line can be set that accurately distinguishes 
those who can from those who cannot procreate. Any line based on experience as 
to an age after which procreation cannot occur would either be impossible to 
set - men can procreate to a very old age - or would have to discriminate 
against women, who lose the ability to become pregnant by a particular upper 
bound (absent miracles as with Sarah and Abraham) that is much younger than any 
age that could possibly be set for men. Thus there are good reasons not to set 
an age limit. 


Mark Scarberry 



Sent from my Verizon Wireless 4G LTE Smartphone 
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