The question isn’t only whether Hobby Lobby (and other for-profit corporations 
that sell secular goods/services) are persons, but rather whether they are 
persons that “exercise religion.” If they are not exercising religion, then 
RFRA is not triggered, no matter how much personhood they have.



On Jun 9, 2014, at 12:39 PM, Hillel Y. Levin <hillelle...@gmail.com> wrote:

> Why doesn't 1 USC sec. 1 resolve the first-stage question in Hobby Lobby 
> (whether RFRA applies to corporations)? "[T]he words “person” and “whoever” 
> include corporations, companies, associations, firms, partnerships, 
> societies, and joint stock companies, as well as individuals."
> 
> Are the two sides really just arguing about whether [RFRA's] "context 
> indicates otherwise"  (1 USC 1) sufficiently to overcome this strong 
> definitional statement?
> 
> If so, much as I'd personally like for Hobby Lobby to lose this case, I'd 
> think that the on this question at least, the plaintiffs have to win. After 
> all, we have a strong statutory definition, with at best equivocal contextual 
> evidence to the contrary.
> 
> What am I missing? Are there cases dealing with the "context" language in 1 
> USC 1?
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