Setting aside the discussion of Hosanna-Tabor and RFRA for a moment, the 
initial question was about where a person “has a right to be.” As it happens, 
Virginia has a church trespass statute (Va. Code. § 18.2-128), which provides, 
"It shall be unlawful for any person, whether or not a church member or 
student, to enter upon or remain upon any church or school property in 
violation of (i) any direction to vacate the property by a person authorized to 
give such direction….” Imprudent as the church’s decision might be here, 
doesn’t the statutory right of the church to exclude for trespass (without all 
the difficulties of “excommunication” and so on) give a straightforward answer 
to the problem?

--
Michael P. Moreland
Visiting Professor of Law
and Mary Ann Remick Senior Visiting Fellow
University of Notre Dame
3101 Eck Hall of Law
Notre Dame, Indiana 46556
Tel: 574-631-2306
Email: moreland...@nd.edu<mailto:moreland...@nd.edu>

From: 
<religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu>> 
on behalf of Steven Jamar <stevenja...@gmail.com<mailto:stevenja...@gmail.com>>
Reply-To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Date: Thursday, April 27, 2017 at 10:44 PM
To: Law Religion & Law List 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Subject: Re: Church excludes nursing woman

Anyway, to return to my original question, how would this work out under RFRA, 
it seems that there is no substantial burden on religious exercise unless the 
church in question considers uncovered breast feeding immodest under its 
religious teachings. Then, is uncovered breast feeding a compelling state 
interest? I don’t think so. If it is, there seems to be no less instrusive 
alternative than to say “allow it.”
Under Smith, this would be a neutral, generally applicable law that applies to 
religious conduct — here allowing uncovered breast feeding during a service in 
the sanctuary — where the person has a right to be unless the church 
excommunicates (or whatever term they use to define members) the person.
Which then brings us to Hosanna-Tabor. I agree that some aspects of religious 
practice, e.g., selecting ministers and even choosing who is a “minister” is 
insulated from governmental regulation. And I agree that a religion can choose 
who will be admitted as congregants and can impose any rules of modesty and 
decorum it likes. But can a religion be required to show that it has a rule of 
modesty that was violated? Or can it exclude anyone for an ad hoc, unknown 
rule? Does it matter whether it was an officious meddling congregant as opposed 
to a church official who did the meddling? Or is the exclusion utterly 
unreviewable.
The ecclesiastical immunity of Hossana-Tabor has limits — child abuse, 
pedophilia, murder, slavery, and so on — but just where is that edge? Surely we 
can stop trial of faith by serpent’s bite. But what short of that?

Steve


--
Prof. Steven D. Jamar
Assoc. Dir. of International Programs
Institute for Intellectual Property and Social Justice
http://iipsj.org<https://na01.safelinks.protection.outlook.com/?url=http%3A%2F%2Fiipsj.org&data=02%7C01%7Cmoreland%40law.villanova.edu%7Ca3332bbf569a4a35bcbb08d48de09b1f%7C765a8de5cf9444f09cafae5bf8cfa366%7C0%7C0%7C636289443198238321&sdata=fdZN5oqfXicyj2pXK20hW%2FCoR7F2VEvDsS3%2BZ2ncBrE%3D&reserved=0>
http://sdjlaw.org

"In these words I can sum up everything I've learned about life:  It goes on."

--Robert Frost



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