Re: Standardized Confidence Intervals

2001-10-21 Thread Rich Ulrich

On 15 Oct 2001 07:44:33 -0700, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Warren) wrote:

 Dear group,
 It seems to me that the one issue here is that when we
 measure something, then that measure should have some
 meaning that is relevant to the study hypotheses.  
 And that meaning should be interpretable so that the width 
 of the CI does have meaning...why would you want to estimate 
 the mean if it is meaningless?

This reminds me that data analysts sometimes can help 
to make outcomes more transparent.  Scaled scores  
of Likert-like items are intelligible when presented as Item-averages,
instead of being Scale-totals for varying numbers of items.

You can describe the relevant anchors for 2.5  versus 3.0,
for group contrasts, change scores, or contrasts between
different scales -- and not get into confusion of how many 
items were added for each total.

I do think that standardized outcomes are usually appropriate
to communicate the size of the outcome effect -- 
even when the measure is fairly well known.

This discussion leads me to conclude that you absolutely
need to describe your sample *more*  thoroughly  
when you are stuck with using standardized measures 
to describe all your outcomes.  How variable is this group?  
How extreme is this group and sample (if it is a clinical trial)? 
A small N is  especially problematic, since you do want 
to show how narrowly (or not) it was selected.

-- 
Rich Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html


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Re: Standardized Confidence Intervals

2001-10-10 Thread Herman Rubin

In article [EMAIL PROTECTED],
dennis roberts [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:



At 03:45 PM 10/9/01 -0400, Wuensch, Karl L wrote:
Some of those who think that estimation of the size of effects is more
important than the testing of a nil hypothesis of no effect argue that we
would be better served by reporting a confidence interval for the size of
the effect.  Such confidence intervals are, in my experience, most often
reported in terms of the original unit of measure for the variable involved.
When the unit of measure is arbitrary, those who are interested in
estimating the size of effects suggest that we do so with standardized
estimates.  It seems to me that it would be useful to present confidence
intervals in standardized units.

why? you only get further away from the original data scale/units you are 
working with ...

in what sense ... is ANY effect size indicator anything BUT arbitrary? i 
don't see how trying to standardize it ... or any confidence interval ... 
makes it anything other than still being in arbitrary units ...

i would argue that whatever the scale is you start off using ... that is as 
CLOSE as you can get to the real data ... even if the scale does not have 
any natural or intuitive kind of meaning

standardizing an arbitrary variable does NOT make it more meaningful ... 
just like converting raw data to a z score scale does NOT make the data 
more meaningful

standardizing a variable may have useful properties but, imputing more 
meaning into the raw data is not one of them



Furthermore, standardizing on almost anything makes it
impossible to compare different populations, where the
location and scale, or other relevant parameters, may be
different.  It also makes asymptotic theory much more
complicated, as the effects of non-normality are usually
much greater if the standardization is used.
-- 
This address is for information only.  I do not claim that these views
are those of the Statistics Department or of Purdue University.
Herman Rubin, Dept. of Statistics, Purdue Univ., West Lafayette IN47907-1399
[EMAIL PROTECTED] Phone: (765)494-6054   FAX: (765)494-0558


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Re: Standardized Confidence Intervals

2001-10-09 Thread dennis roberts




At 03:45 PM 10/9/01 -0400, Wuensch, Karl L wrote:
Some of those who think that estimation of the size of effects is more
important than the testing of a nil hypothesis of no effect argue that we
would be better served by reporting a confidence interval for the size of
the effect.  Such confidence intervals are, in my experience, most often
reported in terms of the original unit of measure for the variable involved.
When the unit of measure is arbitrary, those who are interested in
estimating the size of effects suggest that we do so with standardized
estimates.  It seems to me that it would be useful to present confidence
intervals in standardized units.

why? you only get further away from the original data scale/units you are 
working with ...

in what sense ... is ANY effect size indicator anything BUT arbitrary? i 
don't see how trying to standardize it ... or any confidence interval ... 
makes it anything other than still being in arbitrary units ...

i would argue that whatever the scale is you start off using ... that is as 
CLOSE as you can get to the real data ... even if the scale does not have 
any natural or intuitive kind of meaning

standardizing an arbitrary variable does NOT make it more meaningful ... 
just like converting raw data to a z score scale does NOT make the data 
more meaningful

standardizing a variable may have useful properties but, imputing more 
meaning into the raw data is not one of them



==
dennis roberts, penn state university
educational psychology, 8148632401
http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm



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RE: Standardized Confidence Intervals

2001-10-09 Thread Dale Glaser
Title: RE: Standardized Confidence Intervals






Dennis..yes, the effect size index may be arbitrary, but for argument sake, say I have a measure of 'self-esteem', a 10 item measure (each item a 5-pt. Likert scale) that has a range of 10-50; sample1 has a 95% CI of [23, 27] whereas a comparison sample2 has CI of [22, 29]. Thus, by maintaining the CI in its own unit of measurement, we can observe that there is more error/wider interval for sample1 than sample2 (for now assuming equal 'n' for each sample). However, it is problematic, given the inherent subjectivity of measuring self-esteem, to claim what is too wide of an interval for this type of phenomenon. How do we know, especially with self-report measures, where indeed the scaling may be arbitrary, if the margin of error is of concern? It would seem that by standardizing the CI, as Karl suggests, then we may be able to get a better grasp of the dimensions of error...at least I know the differences between .25 SD vs. 1.00 SD in terms of magnitude..or is this just a stretch?!!!

Dale N. Glaser, Ph.D.

Pacific Science  Engineering Group

6310 Greenwich Drive; Suite 200

San Diego, CA 92122 

Phone: (858) 535-1661 Fax: (858) 535-1665

http://www.pacific-science.com


-Original Message-

From: dennis roberts [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]

Sent: Tuesday, October 09, 2001 1:52 PM

To: Wuensch, Karl L; edstat (E-mail)

Subject: Re: Standardized Confidence Intervals




At 03:45 PM 10/9/01 -0400, Wuensch, Karl L wrote:

Some of those who think that estimation of the size of effects is more

important than the testing of a nil hypothesis of no effect argue that we

would be better served by reporting a confidence interval for the size of

the effect. Such confidence intervals are, in my experience, most often

reported in terms of the original unit of measure for the variable involved.

When the unit of measure is arbitrary, those who are interested in

estimating the size of effects suggest that we do so with standardized

estimates. It seems to me that it would be useful to present confidence

intervals in standardized units.


why? you only get further away from the original data scale/units you are

working with ...


in what sense ... is ANY effect size indicator anything BUT arbitrary? i

don't see how trying to standardize it ... or any confidence interval ...

makes it anything other than still being in arbitrary units ...


i would argue that whatever the scale is you start off using ... that is as

CLOSE as you can get to the real data ... even if the scale does not have

any natural or intuitive kind of meaning


standardizing an arbitrary variable does NOT make it more meaningful ...

just like converting raw data to a z score scale does NOT make the data

more meaningful


standardizing a variable may have useful properties but, imputing more

meaning into the raw data is not one of them




==

dennis roberts, penn state university

educational psychology, 8148632401

http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm




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RE: Standardized Confidence Intervals

2001-10-09 Thread dennis roberts

At 03:04 PM 10/9/01 -0700, Dale Glaser wrote:

Dennis..yes, the effect size index may be arbitrary, but for argument 
sake, say I have a measure of 'self-esteem', a 10 item measure (each item 
a 5-pt. Likert scale) that has a range of 10-50;  sample1 has a 95% CI of 
[23, 27] whereas a comparison sample2 has CI of [22, 29].  Thus, by 
maintaining the CI in its own unit of measurement, we can observe that 
there is more error/wider interval for sample1 than sample2 (for now 
assuming equal 'n' for each sample).



However, it is problematic, given the inherent subjectivity of measuring 
self-esteem, to claim what is too wide of an interval for this type of 
phenomenon.

i did not know that CIs could tell you this ... under any circumstance ... 
i don't see that standardizing it will solve this problem ...

supposedly, CIs tell you something about the parameter values ... and 
nothing else ... i don't think it is within the capacity of ANY statistic 
... to tell you if some CI is too wide or too narrow ... WE have to judge 
that ... given what we consider in our heads ... is too much error or what 
we are willing to tolerate as precision of our estimates

  How do we know, especially with self-report measures, where indeed the 
 scaling may be arbitrary, if the margin of error is of concern?  It would 
 seem that by standardizing the CI, as Karl suggests, then we may be able 
 to get a better grasp of the dimensions of error...at least I know 
 the differences between .25 SD vs. 1.00 SD in terms of 
 magnitude..or is this just a stretch?!!!

you do this ahead of time ... BEFORE data are collected ... perhaps with 
some pilot work as a guide to what sds you might get ... and then you 
design it so you try to work withIN some margin of error ...

i think the underlying problem here is trying to make sense of things AFTER 
the fact ... without sufficient PREplanning to achieve some approximate 
desired result

after the fact musings will not solve what should have been dealt with 
ahead of time ... and certainly, IMHO of course, standardizing things won't 
solve this either

karl was putting regular CIs (and effect sizes) and standardized CIs (or 
effect sizes) in juxtaposition to those not liking null hypothesis testing 
but, to me, these are two different issues ...

i think that CIs and/or effect sizes are inherently more useful than ANY 
null hypothesis test ... again, IMHO ... thus, brining null hypothesis 
testing into this discussion seems not to be of value ...

of course, i suppose that debating to standardize or not standardize effect 
sizes and/or CIs ... is a legitimate matter to deal with ... even though i 
am not convinced that standardizing these things will really gain you 
anything of value

we might draw some parallel between covariance and correlation ... where, 
putting the linear relationship measure on a 'standardized' dimension IS 
useful ... so that the boundaries have some fixed limits ... which 
covariances do not ... but, i am not sure that the analog for effect sizes 
and/or CIs ... is equally beneficial


Dale N. Glaser, Ph.D.
Pacific Science  Engineering Group
6310 Greenwich Drive; Suite 200
San Diego, CA 92122
Phone: (858) 535-1661 Fax: (858) 535-1665
http://www.pacific-science.comhttp://www.pacific-science.com

-Original Message-
From: dennis roberts [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Tuesday, October 09, 2001 1:52 PM
To: Wuensch, Karl L; edstat (E-mail)
Subject: Re: Standardized Confidence Intervals

dennis roberts, penn state university
educational psychology, 8148632401
http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm



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RE: Standardized Confidence Intervals

2001-10-09 Thread dennis roberts

At 03:04 PM 10/9/01 -0700, Dale Glaser wrote:
  It would seem that by standardizing the CI, as Karl suggests, then we 
 may be able to get a better grasp of the dimensions of error...at 
 least I know the differences between .25 SD vs. 1.00 SD in terms of magnitude

well, yes, 1 sd means about 4 times as much spread (in sd units that is) 
than .25 sd (whether it be error or anything else) ... but, UNLess you know 
what the underlying scale is ... what the raw units mean ... have some feel 
for the metric you started with ... i don't see that this really makes it 
instantaneously more understandable

i would like to see a fully worked out example ... where we have say: 
regular effect sizes next to standardized effect sizes ... and/or regular 
CIs next to standardized CIs ... and then try to make the case that 
standardized values HELP one to UNDERSTAND the data better ... or the 
inference under examination ...

we might even do some study on this ... experimental ... where we vary the 
type of information ... then either ask Ss to elaborate on what they think 
the data mean ... or, answer some mc items about WHAT IS POSSIBLE to infer 
from the data ... and see if standardizing really makes a difference

my hunch is that it will not

..or is this just a stretch?!!!

Dale N. Glaser, Ph.D.
Pacific Science  Engineering Group
6310 Greenwich Drive; Suite 200
San Diego, CA 92122
Phone: (858) 535-1661 Fax: (858) 535-1665
http://www.pacific-science.comhttp://www.pacific-science.com


==
dennis roberts, penn state university
educational psychology, 8148632401
http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm



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