Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 21-oct.-06, à 06:02, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :



 Bruno Marchal writes:

 The UD is both massively parallel
 and massively sequential. Recall the UD generates all programs and
 executes them all together, but one step at a time. The D is for
 dovetailing which is a technic for emulating parallelism 
 sequentially.

 Given that no actual physical hardware is needed to run it, why did
 you choose the UD to generate all the computations rather than just
 saying they are all run in parallel. There is enough room in Platonia
 for infinite parallel virtual machines, isn't there?


 This is an interesting and key question. It is also a rather difficult
 one. To answer it we have to dig deeper on the importance and
 miraculous aspect of Church thesis, which makes existing a universal
 dovetailer, and which makes precise what a computational states is, 
 and
 why we have to postulate Arithmetical Realism, and why we have to be
 cautious with any form of larger mathematical platonism (but such
 platonism is not prohibited per se).
 Now with comp, and Church thesis in particular, it can be shown that
 the computational states can be said to exist (in the same sense than
 numbers) and it can be defined thoroughly by the UD. If you introduced
 infinite machines (and I agree that it is defensible that some of such
 machine exists in Platonia) , either you will lose Church thesis, or
 you will lose the YES DOCTOR, at least in the form I usually gave 
 it.
 Your move here can be done, nevertheless, without changing the
 mathematical structure of the hypostases, but this asks for a non
 trivial generalization of comp, and of Church thesis in particular. I
 would not do that unless it is needed to get the physics (and then 
 this
 would be a refutation of comp, or more precisely here: of Sigma_1
 comp).

 The Chuch thesis concerns what can in theory be computed by a physical
 computer with unlimited resources.


Church thesis just assert that a universal turing machine can compute 
all computable functions from N to N.
It relate a mathematical object with a human cognitive notion. It does 
not invoke physical machine at all.


 It seems that this is the computer you
 have in mind to run the UD.

Only for providing a decor for a story. This assumption is eliminated 
when we arrive (step eight of UDA-8) at the conclusion that universal 
digital machine cannot distinguish any reality from an arithmetical 
one.


 That's OK and the argument works (assuming
 comp etc.), but in Platonia you have access to hypercomputers of the 
 best
 and fastest kind.

Fastness is relative in Platonia. Universal machine can always been 
sped up on almost all their inputs (There is a theorem by Blum and 
Marquez to that effect). Then indeed there are the angels and 
hierachies of non-comp machine. A vast category of angels can be 
shown to have the same hypostases (so we cannot tested by empirical 
means if we are such angels). Then they are entities very closed to the 
one, having stronger hypostases, i.e. you need to add axioms to G and 
G* (or V, V* with explicit comp) to get them.


 This does not invalidate CT - it still applies to the physical
 world, such as it is - but it does make it unnecessary when the 
 resources of
 Platonia are available. Also, I don't see how introducing infinite 
 machines
 invalidates yes doctor, since if anything it adds to the choice of 
 hardware
 when considering your replacement brain.

You are right here, I agree. But this makes the thought experiment 
longer to describe. Mathematically Sigma1-comp, which is the standard 
traditionnal comp, is easier to handle than their hyper or super 
generalization. G, G* and all the hypostases remains correct and 
complete for much weaker form of comp. That's correct.

Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Time, Causality and all that

2006-10-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 21-oct.-06, à 21:52, Charles Goodwin a écrit :

[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Peter D 
 Jones

 The problem is not that there are no such  resemblances in a
 Multiverse, it is that ther are far too many. How does one
 distinguishing real ones from coincidental ones. How does a Harry
 Potter film differ from a documentary?

 The only way I know of that the MWI distinguishes these is that the
 measure of the real ones is Vastly larger than the measure of the
 rest. But that is just restating things.







Except, I would say that QM-without-collapse + decoherence theory 
explains the measure of the real one is vaster than the measure of the 
Harry-Potter (HP) stories, and, as DD said himself, why the probability 
to remains in a Harry Potter story is negligible.

In a a-la-Feynman nutshell: QM entails a phase randomization making the 
HP story amplitude of probabilities self-destroying.

But now, most presentation of QM-without collapse assumes the classical 
turing emulability of the observer. Then, (it is my main point), it 
remains to explain why we are not confronted with the classical HP 
stories, which, at least at first sight, have purely additive 
probabilities and no phase randomization to eliminate the HP one.

The high non triviality of the classical turing emulability of the 
observer hypothesis (computatiionalism), forces to justfify the 
appearance of



  (which btw remains true in the Hamerov doctrine where the brain is a 
quantum machine, it is only false in Penrose doctrine where 
consciousness is supposed to be both physical and non turing emulable)




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Time, Causality and all that

2006-10-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 21-oct.-06, à 21:52, Charles Goodwin wrote :


[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Peter D 
 Jones

 The problem is not that there are no such  resemblances in a
 Multiverse, it is that ther are far too many. How does one
 distinguishing real ones from coincidental ones. How does a Harry
 Potter film differ from a documentary?

 The only way I know of that the MWI distinguishes these is that the
 measure of the real ones is Vastly larger than the measure of the
 rest. But that is just restating things.



Except, I would say that QM-without-collapse + decoherence theory 
explains the measure of the real one is vaster than the measure of the 
Harry-Potter (HP) stories, and, as DD said himself, why the probability 
to remains in a Harry Potter story is negligible.

In a a-la-Feynman nutshell: QM entails a phase randomization making the 
HP story amplitude of probabilities self-destroying.

But now, most presentation of QM-without collapse assumes the classical 
turing emulability of the observer. Then, (it is my main point), it 
remains to explain why we are not confronted with the classical HP 
stories, which, at least at first sight, have purely additive 
probabilities and no phase randomization to eliminate the HP one.

But then the high non triviality of the classical turing emulability of 
the observer hypothesis (computationalism(*)), makes it possible to 
justfify the appearance of physicalness.



  (*) which btw remains true in the Hamerov doctrine where the brain is 
a quantum machine, comp is only false in Penrose doctrine where 
consciousness is presupposed to be both physical and non turing 
emulable.


Le 21-oct.-06, à 21:52, Bob Schott wrote:


   I actually adhere, just as a point of reference, to the 
 consciousness-created interpretation of QM, which is also held by John 
 Wheeler (or at least was the last I heard; he seems to change his mind 
 often about such matters) and some other respected physicists.  Like 
 them, I have not as of yet fallen into the murky realm of idealism, 
 but who knows.  It would appear to quite nicely answer a multitude of 
 seemingly perplexing questions, such as:  How could insentient matter 
 ever become conscious; ever feel?  Does matter produce consciousness 
 or visa versa?  Is there really any fundamental proof for one over the 
 other?

I think there are arguments showing that if we assume we are digital 
machines then the theory of matter should be retrieved from computer 
science/number theory/information theory. This makes the comp hyp 
empirically testable.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Time, Causality and all that

2006-10-22 Thread 1Z


Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Le 21-oct.-06, à 21:52, Charles Goodwin a écrit :

 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Peter D
  Jones
 
  The problem is not that there are no such  resemblances in a
  Multiverse, it is that ther are far too many. How does one
  distinguishing real ones from coincidental ones. How does a Harry
  Potter film differ from a documentary?
 
  The only way I know of that the MWI distinguishes these is that the
  measure of the real ones is Vastly larger than the measure of the
  rest. But that is just restating things.







 Except, I would say that QM-without-collapse + decoherence theory
 explains the measure of the real one is vaster than the measure of the
 Harry-Potter (HP) stories, and, as DD said himself, why the probability
 to remains in a Harry Potter story is negligible.

In Barbour-style theories, every Now (3D configuration of matter) is
exemplified exactly once.

 In a a-la-Feynman nutshell: QM entails a phase randomization making the
 HP story amplitude of probabilities self-destroying.

That's multiversal, not omniversal.


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Infinitesimal roadmap (was Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted)

2006-10-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 21-oct.-06, à 02:12, David Nyman a écrit :

 Yes, of course, Brent - hence my comments later on in my post. But in
 fact, comp implies that the normal physics model can't 'fit all the
 data', if we include (as we must) the 1-person pov itself in 'the
 data'. And my point is also that a model which is, in this respect
 particularly, so counter to 'normal science' is especially provocative
 and deserves much attention.  Well, it gets it on this list but
 unfortunately much of the debate goes round in circles because the
 concepts are hard to grapple with, let alone master sufficiently to
 rebut (short of IMHO sterile debates about 'reification'). Hence we
 don't get very far... hence (please) THE ROADMAP. But I wouldn't want
 Bruno to feel I was harrassing him...


Not at all. Actually, you just make higher the probability that I write 
that [censored] english version of my thesis.

Let me give you an infinitesimal roadmap:

1) UDA

UDA shows that if we are digital machine then we cannot distinguish any 
reality from purely arithmetical one, and that we have to justify the 
physical laws by some measure on some relations between numbers. It 
fits a recurring intuition in this list: we have to define observer 
moments and we have to find a measure on them (absolute for some, 
relative for others, ...)
UDA uses the comp hypothesis: YD + CT + AR(Yes doctor + Church 
Thesis + Arithmetical Realism)

2) AUDA

Mmmmh Let me put it in this way. AUDA is the same as UDA except 
that it uses the a-comp hypothesis. a-comp is just CT + AR. a is for 
arithmetical. No need to implicate yourself personally with complex 
personal questions like should I say yes to the doctor and what 
happens after self-duplication 
The trick is simple if not naive. Instead of interviewing you or humans 
like in the UDA, I interview directly the machine. Not all machines 
are interesting here, but thanks to AR, or classical AR, I can limit 
the interview on a platonist (here it means a theorem prover 
accepting the P v ~P principle) self-referentially correct sufficiently 
chatty (proving) universal machine.

Things to understand for AUDA:
1) The absoluteness of the notion of computability (this is equivalent 
with the understanding that CT is not trivial at all: CT entails that 
absoluteness. Such absoluteness are rare events in mathematics and 
logics).
2) The  irreducible relativeness of the notion of provability (this is 
incompleteness, and it follows also from CT, through very few 
diagonalizations).
3) The provability logics. G, G* and their intensional (modal) variants.

David, what is your relation with computers? Do you know one or two 
programming languages? Do you know classical propositional logic? 
formally, informally? I can really start from zero, if only (obviously) 
that is what I have to do with the universal machine in the interview! 
Nevertheless, according to your background I can accelerate here and 
there at least in the roadmap.

I appreciate your interest, don't hesitate to harass me more. I feel I 
little bit guilty for the list which does not always appreciate the 
importance of putting all the cards on the table at some point, but 
then it has to be a little more technical. Perhaps it could be an 
opportunity also to take the train ...

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread 1Z


David Nyman wrote:
 1Z wrote:

  Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
  computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
  and highly significant.

 It certainly would be astonishing to a 'physicalist'. But, as you have
 remarked, our agenda here is more ecumenical.

  A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
  is much less so.

 Must I assume that by 'Platonism' here you mean COMP?

Bruno's versions of COMP must embed Platonism (passim)

 We do need, I
 think, to make a clear distinction in these discussions between

 1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
 materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
 at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
 concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
 as to its roots in 'physical causality'.

No, not entirely opaque.

 and

 2) COMP - a theory which posits the emergence of 'matter' as a measure
 on a computationally prior 1-person level - hence defining its
 axiomatic base solely in terms of computational fundamentals - CT, AR,
 etc.

Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
the conclusion.

 David

  David Nyman wrote:
   Brent Meeker wrote:
  
But it's still a model, one based on arithmetic rather than matter, and 
the only way tojudge whether it is a good model to see how it 
corresponds with mere appearance; just  like we test QM, general 
relativity, and every other theory.  It *might* be the really real 
 model - but so might any other model that fits all the data.
  
   Yes, of course, Brent - hence my comments later on in my post. But in
   fact, comp implies that the normal physics model can't 'fit all the
   data', if we include (as we must) the 1-person pov itself in 'the
   data'.
 
  Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
  computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
  and highly significant. A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
  is much less so.


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Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread 1Z


David Nyman wrote:
 1Z wrote:

   1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
   materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
   at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
   concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
   as to its roots in 'physical causality'.
 
  No, not entirely opaque.

 Could you illuminate?

Maybe physics is relations all the way down.

  Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
  the conclusion.

 Yes indeed, but the conclusions (e.g. the explanatory direction of
 3-person -- 1-person) are surely somewhat different?

They are very different, and a lot of the work is done
by the Platonic assumption.

 David


  David Nyman wrote:
   1Z wrote:
  
Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
and highly significant.
  
   It certainly would be astonishing to a 'physicalist'. But, as you have
   remarked, our agenda here is more ecumenical.
  
A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
is much less so.
  
   Must I assume that by 'Platonism' here you mean COMP?
 
  Bruno's versions of COMP must embed Platonism (passim)
 
   We do need, I
   think, to make a clear distinction in these discussions between
  
   1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
   materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
   at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
   concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
   as to its roots in 'physical causality'.
 
  No, not entirely opaque.
 
   and
  
   2) COMP - a theory which posits the emergence of 'matter' as a measure
   on a computationally prior 1-person level - hence defining its
   axiomatic base solely in terms of computational fundamentals - CT, AR,
   etc.
 
  Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
  the conclusion.
 
   David
  
David Nyman wrote:
 Brent Meeker wrote:

  But it's still a model, one based on arithmetic rather than matter, 
  and the only way tojudge whether it is a good model to see 
  how it corresponds with mere appearance; just  like we test QM, 
  general relativity, and every other theory.  It *might* be the 
  really real  model - but so might any other model that fits 
  all the data.

 Yes, of course, Brent - hence my comments later on in my post. But in
 fact, comp implies that the normal physics model can't 'fit all the
 data', if we include (as we must) the 1-person pov itself in 'the
 data'.
   
Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
and highly significant. A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
is much less so.


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Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread David Nyman

1Z wrote:

 Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
 computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
 and highly significant.

It certainly would be astonishing to a 'physicalist'. But, as you have
remarked, our agenda here is more ecumenical.

 A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
 is much less so.

Must I assume that by 'Platonism' here you mean COMP? We do need, I
think, to make a clear distinction in these discussions between

1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
as to its roots in 'physical causality'.

and

2) COMP - a theory which posits the emergence of 'matter' as a measure
on a computationally prior 1-person level - hence defining its
axiomatic base solely in terms of computational fundamentals - CT, AR,
etc.

David

 David Nyman wrote:
  Brent Meeker wrote:
 
   But it's still a model, one based on arithmetic rather than matter, and 
   the only way tojudge whether it is a good model to see how it 
   corresponds with mere appearance; just  like we test QM, general 
   relativity, and every other theory.  It *might* be the really real  
   model - but so might any other model that fits all the data.
 
  Yes, of course, Brent - hence my comments later on in my post. But in
  fact, comp implies that the normal physics model can't 'fit all the
  data', if we include (as we must) the 1-person pov itself in 'the
  data'.

 Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
 computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
 and highly significant. A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
 is much less so.


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Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread David Nyman

1Z wrote:

 Maybe physics is relations all the way down.

Hmm... I think this is pretty close to what Bruno is saying, using
AR+CT+UDA as the 'placeholder' for the universe of relational
possibility. But, to differentiate your own views, what would you
propose as the relata (i.e. when you've gone 'all the way down')?

 They are very different, and a lot of the work is done
 by the Platonic assumption.

Good, we seem to agree that the conclusions of comp1 and comp2 are
different. And specifically the question of recursive priority - what
emerges from what - is hardly a trivial difference. Bruno has argued,
if I've got it right, that comp supports 1--3 over 3--1 (3 = 'the
relata'). Do you have a knock-down argument to the contrary, other than
a philosophical commitment to the priority of what can be 'seen' (as
opposed to, as Colin would no doubt say, *that* it can be seen)?

BTW, I'm not arguing from the perspective of a 'convert' to comp,
merely as an interested  seeker. However, like Colin, I don't feel that
physics as normally practised takes seriously enough the *fact* of
there being an observation (as opposed to the *effect* of an
observational process). When considered at all, it's as a putative
'relational side effect' of the physics (e.g. standard
computationalism). So part of my interest in comp is motivated by the
fact that it treats this aspect of 'everything' with maximum
seriousness, explicitly seeking a theory that elucidates the structure
of 'observation' equally with that of the 'observables' thus revealed.
Consequently, it may be of value to put final judgement on what sort of
state-of-affairs could support 'RITSIAR' on hold, pending an
exploration of these very interesting implications of comp.

David

 David Nyman wrote:
  1Z wrote:
 
1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
as to its roots in 'physical causality'.
  
   No, not entirely opaque.
 
  Could you illuminate?

 Maybe physics is relations all the way down.

   Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
   the conclusion.
 
  Yes indeed, but the conclusions (e.g. the explanatory direction of
  3-person -- 1-person) are surely somewhat different?

 They are very different, and a lot of the work is done
 by the Platonic assumption.

  David
 
 
   David Nyman wrote:
1Z wrote:
   
 Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
 computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
 and highly significant.
   
It certainly would be astonishing to a 'physicalist'. But, as you have
remarked, our agenda here is more ecumenical.
   
 A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
 is much less so.
   
Must I assume that by 'Platonism' here you mean COMP?
  
   Bruno's versions of COMP must embed Platonism (passim)
  
We do need, I
think, to make a clear distinction in these discussions between
   
1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
as to its roots in 'physical causality'.
  
   No, not entirely opaque.
  
and
   
2) COMP - a theory which posits the emergence of 'matter' as a measure
on a computationally prior 1-person level - hence defining its
axiomatic base solely in terms of computational fundamentals - CT, AR,
etc.
  
   Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
   the conclusion.
  
David
   
 David Nyman wrote:
  Brent Meeker wrote:
 
   But it's still a model, one based on arithmetic rather than 
   matter, and the only way tojudge whether it is a good 
   model to see how it corresponds with mere appearance; just  
   like we test QM, general relativity, and every other theory.  It 
   *might* be the really real  model - but so might any other 
   model that fits all the data.
 
  Yes, of course, Brent - hence my comments later on in my post. But 
  in
  fact, comp implies that the normal physics model can't 'fit all the
  data', if we include (as we must) the 1-person pov itself in 'the
  data'.

 Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
 computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
 and highly significant. A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
 is much less so.


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Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread David Nyman

1Z wrote:

  1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
  materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
  at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
  concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
  as to its roots in 'physical causality'.

 No, not entirely opaque.

Could you illuminate?

 Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
 the conclusion.

Yes indeed, but the conclusions (e.g. the explanatory direction of
3-person -- 1-person) are surely somewhat different?

David


 David Nyman wrote:
  1Z wrote:
 
   Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
   computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
   and highly significant.
 
  It certainly would be astonishing to a 'physicalist'. But, as you have
  remarked, our agenda here is more ecumenical.
 
   A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
   is much less so.
 
  Must I assume that by 'Platonism' here you mean COMP?

 Bruno's versions of COMP must embed Platonism (passim)

  We do need, I
  think, to make a clear distinction in these discussions between
 
  1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
  materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent dialogues),
  at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
  concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely opaque
  as to its roots in 'physical causality'.

 No, not entirely opaque.

  and
 
  2) COMP - a theory which posits the emergence of 'matter' as a measure
  on a computationally prior 1-person level - hence defining its
  axiomatic base solely in terms of computational fundamentals - CT, AR,
  etc.

 Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
 the conclusion.

  David
 
   David Nyman wrote:
Brent Meeker wrote:
   
 But it's still a model, one based on arithmetic rather than matter, 
 and the only way tojudge whether it is a good model to see 
 how it corresponds with mere appearance; just  like we test QM, 
 general relativity, and every other theory.  It *might* be the really 
 real  model - but so might any other model that fits all the 
 data.
   
Yes, of course, Brent - hence my comments later on in my post. But in
fact, comp implies that the normal physics model can't 'fit all the
data', if we include (as we must) the 1-person pov itself in 'the
data'.
  
   Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
   computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
   and highly significant. A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
   is much less so.


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Re: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread 1Z


David Nyman wrote:
 1Z wrote:

  Maybe physics is relations all the way down.

 Hmm... I think this is pretty close to what Bruno is saying, using
 AR+CT+UDA as the 'placeholder' for the universe of relational
 possibility. But, to differentiate your own views, what would you
 propose as the relata (i.e. when you've gone 'all the way down')?

Primary matter of course.

  They are very different, and a lot of the work is done
  by the Platonic assumption.

 Good, we seem to agree that the conclusions of comp1 and comp2 are
 different. And specifically the question of recursive priority - what
 emerges from what - is hardly a trivial difference. Bruno has argued,
 if I've got it right, that

his version of

 comp supports 1--3 over 3--1 (3 = 'the
 relata'). Do you have a knock-down argument to the contrary, other than
 a philosophical commitment to the priority of what can be 'seen' (as
 opposed to, as Colin would no doubt say, *that* it can be seen)?

I have several arguments. Principally against Platonism, without
which he does not obtain his UD without building it.

(I have noticed that you seem to equate a relation-only
universe with Platonia. But the point about Platonia is
is that there is no contingency there. A relation-only
universe can still be a contingent universe, in which
a UD fails to exist for some contingent reason).


 BTW, I'm not arguing from the perspective of a 'convert' to comp,
 merely as an interested  seeker. However, like Colin, I don't feel that
 physics as normally practised takes seriously enough the *fact* of
 there being an observation (as opposed to the *effect* of an
 observational process).

Surely that is a psychological question.

 When considered at all, it's as a putative
 'relational side effect' of the physics (e.g. standard
 computationalism).

PhysicalISM requires one to believe that.
But physicalism isn't physics -- it is a metaphysical claim.

 So part of my interest in comp is motivated by the
 fact that it treats this aspect of 'everything' with maximum
 seriousness, explicitly seeking a theory that elucidates the structure
 of 'observation' equally with that of the 'observables' thus revealed.

Huh? Computationalism is no more able to account for
qualia than physicalism.

 Consequently, it may be of value to put final judgement on what sort of
 state-of-affairs could support 'RITSIAR' on hold, pending an
 exploration of these very interesting implications of comp.

If a computation is only a subset of, or abstraction from,
a physical process (as in non-Bruno computationalism),
how can it explain things physics can't?

 David

  David Nyman wrote:
   1Z wrote:
  
 1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
 materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent 
 dialogues),
 at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
 concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely 
 opaque
 as to its roots in 'physical causality'.
   
No, not entirely opaque.
  
   Could you illuminate?
 
  Maybe physics is relations all the way down.
 
Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
the conclusion.
  
   Yes indeed, but the conclusions (e.g. the explanatory direction of
   3-person -- 1-person) are surely somewhat different?
 
  They are very different, and a lot of the work is done
  by the Platonic assumption.
 
   David
  
  
David Nyman wrote:
 1Z wrote:

  Computationalism doesn't imply that. a conflict between
  computationalism and physicalism would be be astonshing
  and highly significant.

 It certainly would be astonishing to a 'physicalist'. But, as you have
 remarked, our agenda here is more ecumenical.

  A conflict between physicalsim and Platonism
  is much less so.

 Must I assume that by 'Platonism' here you mean COMP?
   
Bruno's versions of COMP must embed Platonism (passim)
   
 We do need, I
 think, to make a clear distinction in these discussions between

 1) 'Computationalism', a theory (implicitly or explicitly) based on
 materialism, although in a manner which (witness our recent 
 dialogues),
 at least so far as its putative association with consciousness is
 concerned, in an entirely 'relational' manner which is extremely 
 opaque
 as to its roots in 'physical causality'.
   
No, not entirely opaque.
   
 and

 2) COMP - a theory which posits the emergence of 'matter' as a measure
 on a computationally prior 1-person level - hence defining its
 axiomatic base solely in terms of computational fundamentals - CT, AR,
 etc.
   
Bruno uses 'comp' to mean the 'axiomatic base', not
the conclusion.
   
 David

  David Nyman wrote:
   Brent Meeker wrote:
  
But it's still a model, one based on arithmetic rather than 
matter, and the only way tojudge whether it is a 

To observe is to......EC

2006-10-22 Thread Colin Geoffrey Hales

=
STEP 5:  The rolling proof

NOTES:
1) There is only 1 proof in EC. (Symbolically it has been designated U(.)
above)
2) It consists of 1 collection of basic EC primitives (axioms)
3) The current state of the proof is 'now' the thin slice of the present.
4) The documentation of all the outpouring prior states (configuration of
the entire set of axioms) is what would be regarded as a standard proof - 
A theorem evolving under the guiding hand of the mathematician. It's just
that there is 1 mathematician per axiom in EC.
5) In effect, all that every happens in EC is rearrangement of axioms into
a new configuration, which then becomes a new configuration of axioms.
6) The 'theorem' proof never ends.
7) This process, when viewed from the perspective of being part of EC
looks like time. Local regularity in the state transition processes would
mean that local representations of behaviour could have a t parameter in
them.
8) Each fluctuation can be regarded as a 'mathematician'. This makes EC a
single gigantic parallel theorem proving exercise where at each 'state',
each mathematician co--operates with a local subset of other
mathematicians and where possible they merge their work and then form a
'team' which then works with other local mathematicians.
7) The local options for a mathematician are totally state dependent i.e.
depending in what other mathematicians (or teams of merged mathematicians)
are available to merge with.
8) The rules for cooperation between mathematicians will look like the 2nd
law of thermodynamics from within EC. Those rules will emerge later.
===

Well I hope they will!.

NEXT: some of the rules. Remember we are headed towards analysing the
nature of the structure of the EC proof and at the mechanism of 1-person.
In terms of EC, if local structure in EC is a part of the single EC proof,
then it is a 'sub-proof' in EC. At the outermost structural levels the
proof literally is 'matter'. The 1-person is a virtual-proof performed by
matter. Virtual matter. It's done under the same rules. Nothing special.
Everything is the same in EC. We can then look at what COMP would do to
it.

cheers,

colin hales




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RE: Numbers, Machine and Father Ted

2006-10-22 Thread Stathis Papaioannou


Bruno Marchal writes:
 
 Le 21-oct.-06, à 06:02, Stathis Papaioannou a écrit :
 
 
 
  Bruno Marchal writes:
 
  The UD is both massively parallel
  and massively sequential. Recall the UD generates all programs and
  executes them all together, but one step at a time. The D is for
  dovetailing which is a technic for emulating parallelism 
  sequentially.
 
  Given that no actual physical hardware is needed to run it, why did
  you choose the UD to generate all the computations rather than just
  saying they are all run in parallel. There is enough room in Platonia
  for infinite parallel virtual machines, isn't there?
 
 
  This is an interesting and key question. It is also a rather difficult
  one. To answer it we have to dig deeper on the importance and
  miraculous aspect of Church thesis, which makes existing a universal
  dovetailer, and which makes precise what a computational states is, 
  and
  why we have to postulate Arithmetical Realism, and why we have to be
  cautious with any form of larger mathematical platonism (but such
  platonism is not prohibited per se).
  Now with comp, and Church thesis in particular, it can be shown that
  the computational states can be said to exist (in the same sense than
  numbers) and it can be defined thoroughly by the UD. If you introduced
  infinite machines (and I agree that it is defensible that some of such
  machine exists in Platonia) , either you will lose Church thesis, or
  you will lose the YES DOCTOR, at least in the form I usually gave 
  it.
  Your move here can be done, nevertheless, without changing the
  mathematical structure of the hypostases, but this asks for a non
  trivial generalization of comp, and of Church thesis in particular. I
  would not do that unless it is needed to get the physics (and then 
  this
  would be a refutation of comp, or more precisely here: of Sigma_1
  comp).
 
  The Chuch thesis concerns what can in theory be computed by a physical
  computer with unlimited resources.
 
 
 Church thesis just assert that a universal turing machine can compute 
 all computable functions from N to N.
 It relate a mathematical object with a human cognitive notion. It does 
 not invoke physical machine at all.

In a sense that is true, but a TM is still a model of what could possibly be 
built 
in a physical universe such as ours. Of course the model is still valid 
irrespective 
of the existence of a physical machine or indeed a physical universe, but if 
you 
abandon the idea of a physical universe there is no need to constrain yourself 
to 
models based on one. So I suppose the two questions I have (which you partly 
answer below) are, having arrived at step 8 of the UDA could you go back and 
say that the UD is not really necessary but all the required computations exist 
eternally without any generating mechanism or program (after all, you make this 
assumption for the UD itself), or alternatively, could you have started with 
step 
8 and eliminate the need for the UD in the argument at all?

  It seems that this is the computer you
  have in mind to run the UD.
 
 Only for providing a decor for a story. This assumption is eliminated 
 when we arrive (step eight of UDA-8) at the conclusion that universal 
 digital machine cannot distinguish any reality from an arithmetical 
 one.
 
 
  That's OK and the argument works (assuming
  comp etc.), but in Platonia you have access to hypercomputers of the 
  best
  and fastest kind.
 
 Fastness is relative in Platonia. Universal machine can always been 
 sped up on almost all their inputs (There is a theorem by Blum and 
 Marquez to that effect). Then indeed there are the angels and 
 hierachies of non-comp machine. A vast category of angels can be 
 shown to have the same hypostases (so we cannot tested by empirical 
 means if we are such angels). Then they are entities very closed to the 
 one, having stronger hypostases, i.e. you need to add axioms to G and 
 G* (or V, V* with explicit comp) to get them.

Of course I was joking when I said best and fastest. In Platonia there is 
no actual time and everything is as fast and as perfect as you want it.

  This does not invalidate CT - it still applies to the physical
  world, such as it is - but it does make it unnecessary when the 
  resources of
  Platonia are available. Also, I don't see how introducing infinite 
  machines
  invalidates yes doctor, since if anything it adds to the choice of 
  hardware
  when considering your replacement brain.
 
 You are right here, I agree. But this makes the thought experiment 
 longer to describe. Mathematically Sigma1-comp, which is the standard 
 traditionnal comp, is easier to handle than their hyper or super 
 generalization. G, G* and all the hypostases remains correct and 
 complete for much weaker form of comp. That's correct.

Stathis Papaioannou
_
Be one of the first to try Windows Live Mail.

RE: To observe is to......EC

2006-10-22 Thread Colin Hales

===
STEP 6:  Initial state, 'axioms'

(*)

The initial state of the EC axiom set is 1 huge collection of phase related
fluctuations.
The (*) means that all the axioms are coincident - there is no 'space' yet.
No concept of place. The number of spatial dimensions is equal to the number
of axioms.

NOTES:
1) Think of ( ) as a loop that goes up and around the left bracket, across
to the top of the right bracket, down the right bracket and across to the
left again. Serendipitously the match with Church's Lambda calculus is not
altered by this mental trick.

2) To initialise a relevant collection of ( ) as axioms is to construct
them, but to construct them IN PHASE. Not all exactly in phase. All that is
needed is to have the ( ) sufficiently in phase to enable their mutual
interaction. Two ( ) can merge if they happen to transit through the same
state as another coincident ( ) in such a way as they a) simply take over
each other (in of phase) or combine to construct a single structure
(notionally larger). In the process unused portions can be shed this is a
dissipative process. If there is no shedding then the combining process is
lossless.

3) This is where an understanding of dynamic hierarchies will help. Turtles.
The initialisation (construction) of EC axioms can happen from sea of
randomness. In other words the fluctuations are made of sub-fluctuations.
The origins of the sea of randomness can be traced back to more esoteric
considerations of 'nothing' and the 'infinite' - outside the necessary scope
of EC. All that has to happen is that ever so often - very very rarely, but
statistically inevitable, like the one raindrop that hits your nose, you
will get massive numbers of simultaneous phase coherence of similar ( )
fluctuations. The phase coherence doesn't have to be perfect. 

4) The EC fluctuations, being made of sub-fluctuations (turtles) will have a
characteristic depending on the ratio of the EC axiom 'extent' (the number
of sub-fluctuations that create one EC fluctuation). This means that the
final EC outcome will be critically dependent on the dynamic of the EX
axiom. 

5) This process is, I think, what we would call the big bang. The phase
variance is, I think, made visible in what we see as the cosmic background
radiation.

6) The process of reversion of EC axioms to their original noise is that we
see as reality driven by the 2nd law of thermodynamics. Each time a chunk of
on of the original EC axiom is dispersed to a lower level of organisation
within the proof, the net proof 
===


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