Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Nov 28, 2010 at 10:15 PM, Rex Allen  wrote:

> On Sat, Nov 27, 2010 at 4:06 PM, Jason Resch  wrote:
> > On Sat, Nov 27, 2010 at 12:49 PM, Rex Allen 
> wrote:
> >> "Information" is just a catch-all term for "what is being
> >> represented".  But, as you say, the same information can be
> >> represented in *many* different ways, and by many different
> >> bit-patterns.
> >>
> >> And, of course, any set of bits can be interpreted as representing any
> >> information.  You just need the right "one-time pad" to XOR with the
> >> bits, and viola!  The magic is all in the interpretation.  None of it
> >> is in the bits.  And interpretation requires an interpreter.
> >
> > I agree with this completely.  Information alone, such as bits on a hard
> > disk are meaningless without a corresponding program that reads them.
>  Would
> > you admit then, that a computer which interprets bits the same way as a
> > brain could be conscious?  Isn't this mechanism?  Or is your view more
> like
> > the Buddhist idea that there is no thinker, only thought?
>
> Right, my view is that there is no thinker, only thought.
>


Do you believe as you type these responses into your computer you are
helping bring new thoughts into existence?  If I understood the other
threads you cited on accidentalism, it seems as though you do not believe
anything is caused.  Wouldn't that lead to the conclusion that responding to
these threads is pointless?


>
> Once you accept that the conscious experience of a rock exists, what
> purpose does the actual rock serve? It's superfluous. If the rock can
> "just exist", then the experience of the rock can "just exist" too -
> entirely independent of the rock.
>

Believing thought alone exists doesn't give any explanation for why I see a
relatively ordered screen with text and icons I understand, compared to
something like this:
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/a/a0/Tux_secure.jpg

There are far more possible thoughts that consist of a visual field that
looks random, do you find it surprising you happen to be a thought which is
so compressible?

Accepting that rocks exist allows the understanding that some of these rocks
have the right conditions for live to develop on them, and evolve brains to
use to understand the worlds they appear on.  The thoughts of those life
forms is not likely to look like random snow, since that would not be useful
for their survival.  If I start with thought as primitive, and try to
explain that thought under accidental idealism I can go no further.  While
it explains the existence of thought (by definition) it seems like an
intellectual dead end.


>
> Once you accept the existence of conscious experiences, what purpose
> does the brain serve? It's superfluous. If the brain can "just exist",
> then the experiences supposedly caused by the brain can "just exist"
> also.
>
> If not, why not?
>

Rather than say the brain causes conscious experience to exist, I think it
is more accurate to say the brain is conscious, or the brain experiences.
Stated this way, it isn't superfluous.


>
>
> >> SO...given that the bits are merely representations, it seems silly to
> >> me to say that just because you have the bits, you *also* have the
> >> thing they represent.
> >>
> >> Just because you have the bits that represent my conscious experience,
> >> doesn't mean that you have my conscious experience.  Just because you
> >> manipulate the bits in a way as to represent "me seeing a pink
> >> elephant" doesn't mean that you've actually caused me, or any version
> >> of me, to experience seeing a pink elephant.
> >>
> >> All you've really done is had the experience of tweaking some bits and
> >> then had the experience of thinking to yourself:  "hee hee hee, I just
> >> caused Rex to see a pink elephant..."
> >>
> >> Even if you have used some physical system (like a computer) that can
> >> be interpreted as executing an algorithm that manipulates bits that
> >> can be interpreted as representing me reacting to seeing a pink
> >> elephant ("Boy does he look surprised!"), this interpretation all
> >> happens within your conscious experience and has nothing to do with my
> >> conscious experience.
> >
> > Isn't this just idealism?  To me, the main problem with idealism is it
> > doesn't explain why the thoughts we are about to experience are
> predictable
> > under a framework of physical laws.
>
> But then you have to explain the existence, consistency, and
> predictability of this framework of physical laws.
>

I see no reason we should abandon this goal, there is no evidence that the
progress of human understanding has reached an impasse.


>
> You still have the exact same questions, but now your asking them of
> this framework instead of about your conscious experiences.  You just
> pushed the questions back a level by introducing a layer of
> unexplained entities.  Your explanation needs an explanation.
>
>
Mathematical or arithmetical realism seems like a good place

Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Brent Meeker

On 11/28/2010 8:15 PM, Rex Allen wrote:

...
Things might be that way.  But this requires an explanation of the
existence of the information and the interpreter.  And then an
explanation of the explanation.  And then an explanation of the
explanation of the explanation.  And so on.

Down the rabbit hole of infinite regress.  Doesn’t seem promising, and
doesn’t seem necessary.

Why not just accept accidental idealism?

Rex

   

Maybe I would if you could explain it.

Brent

--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Rex Allen
On Sat, Nov 27, 2010 at 4:06 PM, Jason Resch  wrote:
> On Sat, Nov 27, 2010 at 12:49 PM, Rex Allen  wrote:
>> "Information" is just a catch-all term for "what is being
>> represented".  But, as you say, the same information can be
>> represented in *many* different ways, and by many different
>> bit-patterns.
>>
>> And, of course, any set of bits can be interpreted as representing any
>> information.  You just need the right "one-time pad" to XOR with the
>> bits, and viola!  The magic is all in the interpretation.  None of it
>> is in the bits.  And interpretation requires an interpreter.
>
> I agree with this completely.  Information alone, such as bits on a hard
> disk are meaningless without a corresponding program that reads them.  Would
> you admit then, that a computer which interprets bits the same way as a
> brain could be conscious?  Isn't this mechanism?  Or is your view more like
> the Buddhist idea that there is no thinker, only thought?

Right, my view is that there is no thinker, only thought.

Once you accept that the conscious experience of a rock exists, what
purpose does the actual rock serve? It's superfluous. If the rock can
"just exist", then the experience of the rock can "just exist" too -
entirely independent of the rock.

Once you accept the existence of conscious experiences, what purpose
does the brain serve? It's superfluous. If the brain can "just exist",
then the experiences supposedly caused by the brain can "just exist"
also.

If not, why not?


>> SO...given that the bits are merely representations, it seems silly to
>> me to say that just because you have the bits, you *also* have the
>> thing they represent.
>>
>> Just because you have the bits that represent my conscious experience,
>> doesn't mean that you have my conscious experience.  Just because you
>> manipulate the bits in a way as to represent "me seeing a pink
>> elephant" doesn't mean that you've actually caused me, or any version
>> of me, to experience seeing a pink elephant.
>>
>> All you've really done is had the experience of tweaking some bits and
>> then had the experience of thinking to yourself:  "hee hee hee, I just
>> caused Rex to see a pink elephant..."
>>
>> Even if you have used some physical system (like a computer) that can
>> be interpreted as executing an algorithm that manipulates bits that
>> can be interpreted as representing me reacting to seeing a pink
>> elephant ("Boy does he look surprised!"), this interpretation all
>> happens within your conscious experience and has nothing to do with my
>> conscious experience.
>
> Isn't this just idealism?  To me, the main problem with idealism is it
> doesn't explain why the thoughts we are about to experience are predictable
> under a framework of physical laws.

But then you have to explain the existence, consistency, and
predictability of this framework of physical laws.

You still have the exact same questions, but now your asking them of
this framework instead of about your conscious experiences.  You just
pushed the questions back a level by introducing a layer of
unexplained entities.  Your explanation needs an explanation.

Also, you’ve introduced a  new question:  How does unconscious matter
governed by unconscious physical laws give rise to conscious
experience?


> If you see a ball go up, you can be
> rather confident in your future experience of seeing it come back down.  It
> seems there is an underlying system, more fundamental than consciousness,
> which drives where it can go.  In one of your earlier e-mails you explained
> your belief as "accidental idealism", can you elaborate on this accidental
> part?

Basically I’m just combining accidentalism and idealism.

Here’s the link to that earlier post that you refer to:

http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/msg/74a368a670efaf16

Also the Meillassoux paper that I attached to the original post
(“Probability, Necessity, and Infinity”) that spawned this thread is
in this same vein:

http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/browse_thread/thread/18406fb83d9fbebd

This paper addresses the exact question you raise...how to explain the
consistency and predictability that we observe, but without invoking
the unexplained brute existence of “physical laws”.

Meillassoux’s solution uses Cantorian detotalization to counter
proposed resolutions to Hume’s “problem of induction” that involve
probabilistic logic depending upon a totality of cases.

Meillassoux's main point with this digression into Cantorian set
theory is that just as there can be no end to the process of set
formation and thus no such thing as the totality of all sets, there is
also no absolute totality of all possible cases.

In other words:  There is no "set of all possible worlds".  And thus
"we cannot legitimately construct any set within which the foregoing
probabilistic reasoning could make sense."

Another interesting Meillassoux thread:

http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/browse_thread/thread/ff

Re: Compatibilism

2010-11-28 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Nov 27, 2010 at 03:53:31PM -0500, Rex Allen wrote:
> The only way you can get free will from this is to redefine free will.
>  And I still don't understand why your so desperate to do so.
> 
> "Free will", like "square circle", refers to something that doesn't exist.
> 
> "Free will" = "ability to make choices that are neither random nor caused"
> "square circle" = "an object that is both a square and a circle"
> 

What is the point of defining a term to mean a "square circle", unless
it is to practise some sort of sophistry?

Free will, as it is used everyday, is an imprecise term. I count
myself in the camp that chooses to refine it as "the ability to do
something stupid" (or irrational, if you prefer). It seems silly to
refine it as something we agree as logically impossible, such as a
non-random uncaused action.

Cheers

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Mathematics  
UNSW SYDNEY 2052 hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
Australiahttp://www.hpcoders.com.au


-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Compatibilism

2010-11-28 Thread Jason Resch
Rex,

You're mention of whose definition was closer to that of the common person
intrigued me.  I decided to look up what some dictionaries said on the
matter:

From: http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/free+will

dictionary.com
–noun
1. free and independent choice; voluntary decision: You took on the
responsibility of your own free will.
2. Philosophy. the doctrine that the conduct of human beings expresses
personal choice and is not simply determined by physical or divine forces.

world english dictionary
 —n
3.  a.  the apparent human ability to make choices that are not
externally determined
 b.  Compare determinism the doctrine that such human freedom of choice
is not illusory
 c.  (as modifier): a free-will decision
4.  the ability to make a choice without coercion: he left of his own
free will: I did not influence him

cultural dictionary:
5. The ability to choose, think, and act voluntarily. For many philosophers,
to believe in free will is to believe that human beings can be the authors
of their own actions and to reject the idea that human actions are
determined by external conditions or fate. (See determinism, fatalism, and
predestination.)

Brittanica:
6. in humans, the power or capacity to choose among alternatives or to act
in certain situations independently of natural, social, or divine
restraints. Free will is denied by those who espouse any of various forms of
determinism. Arguments for free will are based on the subjective experience
of freedom, on sentiments of guilt, on revealed religion, and on the
universal supposition of responsibility for personal actions that underlies
the concepts of law, reward, punishment, and incentive. In theology, the
existence of free will must be reconciled with God's omniscience and
goodness (in allowing man to choose badly), and with divine grace, which
allegedly is necessary for any meritorious act. A prominent feature of
modern Existentialism is the concept of a radical, perpetual, and frequently
agonizing freedom of choice. Jean-Paul Sartre, for example, speaks of the
individual "condemned to be free" even though his situation may be wholly
determined.


--

I personally find many of the above definitions to be inconsistent, but do
you agree that definitions 1 and 4 refer to something that is real?  I think
most on this list would agree that definition 2 is inconsistent, since it
seems to posit will contains an unpredictable element outside of physics or
arithmetical truth.  None of the definitions above seem to explicitly
mention compatibilism, but neither definition 1 nor 4 is incompatible with
determinism in my opinion.

The idea of predestination and predetermination is in itself interesting,
because it implies it is possible to know what you would do before you ever
did it, but how could any entity determine what you would do without
actually seeing what you in fact do?  If it is not possible to have such
foreknowledge, it rescues free will since what you ultimately decide cannot
be predicted, determined, or known without invoking you to make the
decision.  It is unknowable to any entity how some equation or formula
unfolds without actually unfolding it.  It is like knowing what the 16th
number in the Fibonacci sequence is without first having to determine what
the 15th and 14th were.  By the same extension, one can't know what you will
do without stepping through the process of your brain and seeing what your
brain decides to do (according to its will).



Also, when you asked:
"If no conscious experiences are ruled out by arithmetical truth...then what
good does it do to posit it as a factor in producing conscious experience?"

It reminded me of something David Deutsch said in Fabric of Reality about
impossible experiences.  An example he gave was the conscious experience of
factoring a prime number.  To use your example, you could say: seeing a
square circle.

Jason

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Compatibilism

2010-11-28 Thread Rex Allen
On Sat, Nov 27, 2010 at 4:45 PM, Brent Meeker  wrote:
> On 11/27/2010 12:53 PM, Rex Allen wrote:
>> "Free will" = "ability to make choices that are neither random nor caused"
>>
>
> This is a false dichotomy.  If a deterministic algorithm evaluates the
> probability of success for three different actions as A=0.5 B=0.45 and
> C=0.05 and then a choice between A and B is made at random, then the process
> has made a choice that is both deterministic and random.

Then we have two processes.  The deterministic process evaluated the
probabilities and deterministically rejected C.

Then the deterministic process deterministically chose between A and B
by using the output from some other random process.

The deterministic process's use of the random process’s output was
deterministically constrained to A or B.

If it had *become* a random process in the sense I mean - it might
have gone in with the options of (A or B) but then ended up taking
entirely unrelated action X.  Or not taken any action at all.  Or
turned into a bird.

By random, I’m using the Merriam-Webster definition of:  “without
definite aim, direction, rule, or method”.

I don’t mean: “relating to, having, or being elements or events with
definite probability of occurrence”.

As I’ve said before, I think that probabilistic processes still count
as "caused".

Ultimately I think the difference between deterministic and
probabilistic laws is not significant.

If a law is deterministic then under it's influence Event A will
"cause" Result X 100% of the time.

Why does Event A always lead to Result X? Because that's the law.
There is no deeper reason.

If a law is probabilistic, then under it's influence Event B will
"cause" Result Q, R, or S according to some probability distribution.

Let's say that the probability distribution is 1/3 for each outcome.

If Event B leads to Result R, why does it do so? Because that's the
law. There is no deeper reason.

Event A causes Result X 100% of the time.

Event B causes Result R 33.% of the time.

Why? For fundamental laws (if such things exist) there is no reason.
That's just the way it is.

Determinism could be seen as merely a special case of
indeterminism...the case where all probabilities are set to either 0%
or 100%.

Yes?  Or no?

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Compatibilism

2010-11-28 Thread Stephen Paul King

Hi Rex and Bruno,

   I think that you are both missing an important point by taking an from 
infinity view. The fact that the world is not given to us in terms where 
these is one and only one option given some condition forces us to deal with 
alternatives. We can go on and on about causation and determinism but let us 
get Real, there is only rarely a situation where there can only be one 
singular effect to a singular cause. In fact there is never a actual 
singular cause to some event so the argument falls flat because of a false 
premise. We can build and knock over straw men for ever or we can look at 
Nature honesty and see that our pet theories of Monolithic Static Structure 
will always be Incomplete.
   Free Will, illusory or otherwise is an attempt to deal with the reality 
that there are always alternatives that can occur. We promote a notion of 
Agency to act as a mechanism that chooses between alternatives without bias 
or cohesion and imagine that we have such an agency. Surely this is a 
falsehood from the point of view of infinity where we can imagine we can see 
all of the variables, but we are only thinking of ourselves as an observer 
that is external to the system that we observe and so can see its properties 
and *that our means of perception of such has no effect upon what those 
properties are*. This role used to be played by the notion of a Deity. Now 
we find a secular version of the same thing and wonder why we make no 
progress beyond this conundrum!
   We are not Omniscient, we are not Omnipresent and we most certainly are 
not Omnipotent. Deal with it.


Onward!

Stephen

-Original Message- 
From: Rex Allen

Sent: Sunday, November 28, 2010 5:49 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Compatibilism

On Fri, Nov 26, 2010 at 3:33 PM, Bruno Marchal  wrote:


With your definition of free will, it does not exist. I think we agree.


Very good.  So what we are really arguing about here is whether your
definition or my definition is closer to what is generally meant when
people use the term “free will”.

I think your definition is not very close to what is generally meant,
and so you should come up with a different term for it.

I assume that you resist doing this because you are trying to convince
the general populace that they don’t *NEED* what is generally meant by
“free will” in order to continue with their lives pretty much as
before.

However, you (and the other compatibilists) don’t just come out and
say “free will doesn’t exist, but you don’t need it anyway”.

Instead you say:  “I have found a way to make free will compatible
with determinism!”

And then you proceed with explicating your theory as to why they don’t
need free will after all - hoping that they won’t notice the subtle
switch from “free will is compatible with determinism” to “you don’t
need free will”.

Ultimately, you have found a way to make free will compatible with
determinism:  change the definition of free will.

And maybe this is the best way to get the general populace on-board
with a more reasonable view of things.  But it’s still a rhetorical
tactic, and not a valid argument.


Nor would you find many people in
agreement amongst the general populace.


That is not an argument. Yet many compatibilists reason along similar 
lines,

but this is not an argument either.


But we’re arguing over whose definition is closer to the general usage
of “free will”.

The general usage by the general populace.



Few people agree that mechanism entails that physics is a branch of
theology, and that matter is an emerging pattern. Few people understand 
that
QM = Many worlds. At each epoch few people swallow the new ideas / 
theories.

Science is not working like politics. it is not democratic. Usually the
majority is wrong as science history illustrates well. Many people today
find hard the idea that "they are machine" (except  perhaps in the DM 
large

sense for people with a bit of education).


I’m not necessarily saying that there’s something wrong or
inconsistent or impossible with your proposal.  All I’m saying is that
it’s not free will.



The vast majority of the populace certainly does not equate free will
with ignorance of causes.


Again that is not an argument. It would even be doubtful that humans would
be naturally correct on such hard technical question, especially with the
mechanist assumption which justified *why* most truth are just 
unbelievable.


“What do you mean by ‘free will’” is not a technically hard question.

Also, “do you believe in ultimate responsibility” is not a technically
hard question.



G* minus G is the precise logic of what is true but unbelievable.
It shows that machine have genuine free-will. But humans already dislike 
the

idea that their neighbors have free-will.


They *love* the idea that their neighbors have free-will.

Bertrand Russell:

“Whatever may be thought about it as a matter of ultimate metaphysics,
it is quite clear that nobody believes i

Re: Compatibilism

2010-11-28 Thread Rex Allen
On Fri, Nov 26, 2010 at 3:33 PM, Bruno Marchal  wrote:
>
> With your definition of free will, it does not exist. I think we agree.

Very good.  So what we are really arguing about here is whether your
definition or my definition is closer to what is generally meant when
people use the term “free will”.

I think your definition is not very close to what is generally meant,
and so you should come up with a different term for it.

I assume that you resist doing this because you are trying to convince
the general populace that they don’t *NEED* what is generally meant by
“free will” in order to continue with their lives pretty much as
before.

However, you (and the other compatibilists) don’t just come out and
say “free will doesn’t exist, but you don’t need it anyway”.

Instead you say:  “I have found a way to make free will compatible
with determinism!”

And then you proceed with explicating your theory as to why they don’t
need free will after all - hoping that they won’t notice the subtle
switch from “free will is compatible with determinism” to “you don’t
need free will”.

Ultimately, you have found a way to make free will compatible with
determinism:  change the definition of free will.

And maybe this is the best way to get the general populace on-board
with a more reasonable view of things.  But it’s still a rhetorical
tactic, and not a valid argument.

>> Nor would you find many people in
>> agreement amongst the general populace.
>
> That is not an argument. Yet many compatibilists reason along similar lines,
> but this is not an argument either.

But we’re arguing over whose definition is closer to the general usage
of “free will”.

The general usage by the general populace.


> Few people agree that mechanism entails that physics is a branch of
> theology, and that matter is an emerging pattern. Few people understand that
> QM = Many worlds. At each epoch few people swallow the new ideas / theories.
> Science is not working like politics. it is not democratic. Usually the
> majority is wrong as science history illustrates well. Many people today
> find hard the idea that "they are machine" (except  perhaps in the DM large
> sense for people with a bit of education).

I’m not necessarily saying that there’s something wrong or
inconsistent or impossible with your proposal.  All I’m saying is that
it’s not free will.


>> The vast majority of the populace certainly does not equate free will
>> with ignorance of causes.
>
> Again that is not an argument. It would even be doubtful that humans would
> be naturally correct on such hard technical question, especially with the
> mechanist assumption which justified *why* most truth are just unbelievable.

“What do you mean by ‘free will’” is not a technically hard question.

Also, “do you believe in ultimate responsibility” is not a technically
hard question.


> G* minus G is the precise logic of what is true but unbelievable.
> It shows that machine have genuine free-will. But humans already dislike the
> idea that their neighbors have free-will.

They *love* the idea that their neighbors have free-will.

Bertrand Russell:

“Whatever may be thought about it as a matter of ultimate metaphysics,
it is quite clear that nobody believes it in practice. Everyone has
always believed that it is possible to train character; everyone has
always known that alcohol or opium will have a certain effect on
behaviour. The apostle of free will maintains that a man can by will
power avoid getting drunk, but he does not maintain that when drunk a
man can say "British Constitution" as clearly as if he were sober. And
everybody who has ever had to do with children knows that a suitable
diet does more to make them virtuous than the most eloquent preaching
in the world. The one effect that the free- will doctrine has in
practice is to prevent people from following out such common-sense
knowledge to its rational conclusion. When a man acts in ways that
annoy us we wish to think him wicked, and we refuse to face the fact
that his annoying behaviour is a result of antecedent causes which, if
you follow them long enough, will take you beyond the moment of his
birth and therefore to events for which he cannot be held responsible
by any stretch of imagination.”


> People will not like that, but in
> the long run, they will prefer that to the idea that *they* have no free
> will themselves. It is still genuine partial free will. You can manage some
> of your classes of futures, you have a partial control.

What causes you to manage them one way as opposed to another way?


>> If you ask “most people”, they will not agree that the human choice is
>> random, and they will not agree that human choice can be explained by
>> causal forces.
>
> Such question are known to be hot, and most people disagree with each other.
> Many among those who criticizes determinism often relies on sacred texts,
> and show an unwillingness to even reason.

This is true.  And it could be that your sneaky app

Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread 1Z


On Nov 28, 9:02 pm, Evgenii Rudnyi  wrote:
> on 28.11.2010 20:46 1Z said the following:
>
>
>
>
>
> > On Nov 27, 7:21 pm, Evgenii Rudnyi  wrote:
> >> on 27.11.2010 20:08 1Z said the following:
>
> >>> On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allen    wrote:
>
>  Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your
>  information could be represented, how likely is it that your
>  experience really is caused by a biological brain?  Or even by
>  a representation of a biological brain?
>
> >>> Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are
> >>> always more complex, and therefore less likely than "things are
> >>> the way they seem to be"
>
> >> Could you please tell what a hypothesis you consider as less
> >> complex?
>
> > I did.
>
> >> As for Occam's razor. Let us consider the statement "The God has
> >> created everything". Is this more or less complex as compared with
> >> the modern scientific view?
>
> > Is "God+World" more or less simple than "World" ?
>
> I guess that people believing in God consider him as a part of the
> world.

That is definitely not Judaeo-Christian philosophy.

> Hence here it would be better to compare
>
> "World where people believe in God"
>
> with
>
> "World where people believe that God does not exist"

Those aren't ontologies

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 28.11.2010 20:46 1Z said the following:



On Nov 27, 7:21 pm, Evgenii Rudnyi  wrote:

on 27.11.2010 20:08 1Z said the following:




On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allenwrote:



Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your
information could be represented, how likely is it that your
experience really is caused by a biological brain?  Or even by
a representation of a biological brain?



Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are
always more complex, and therefore less likely than "things are
the way they seem to be"


Could you please tell what a hypothesis you consider as less
complex?


I did.


As for Occam's razor. Let us consider the statement "The God has
created everything". Is this more or less complex as compared with
the modern scientific view?


Is "God+World" more or less simple than "World" ?


I guess that people believing in God consider him as a part of the 
world. Hence here it would be better to compare


"World where people believe in God"

with

"World where people believe that God does not exist"

Have no idea what is simpler.

Evgenii
--
http://blog.rudnyi.ru

--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Pzomby


On Nov 27, 10:49 am, Rex Allen  wrote:
> On Thu, Nov 25, 2010 at 7:40 PM, Jason Resch  wrote:
> > On Thu, Nov 25, 2010 at 3:38 PM, Rex Allen  wrote:
>
> The same goes for more abstract substrates, like bits of information.
> Rex

Assuming that by using the term ‘abstract’ it means ‘non-physical’, is
it possible for information or anything to be ‘more’ or even ‘less’
abstract.  Are not the physical and abstract realms pure unto
themselves with no possibility of being more or less abstract or
physical?  In other words ‘abstract substrates” could be
incongruous.

Any clarification or examples on this issue would be helpful.
Thanks

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Compatibilism

2010-11-28 Thread 1Z


On Nov 27, 8:53 pm, Rex Allen  wrote:
> On Fri, Nov 26, 2010 at 7:44 AM, 1Z  wrote:
> > On Nov 26, 6:31 am, Rex Allen  wrote:
> >> Any defense of "free will" must allow for ultimate responsibility for 
> >> actions.
>
> > Mine does
>
> Random events don't qualify as free will.

So you say. I think that;s arbitrary. I think
the real object is to irrational decision, and
I have argued that rationality is compatible with FW

I could "prove" you don;t exist by redefining
"Rex Allen" to mean "square circle". So what?
Philosophical questions always boil down
to definitiions, and particularly, to how reaosnable
they are.

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Compatibilism

2010-11-28 Thread 1Z


On Nov 27, 8:17 pm, Rex Allen  wrote:
> On Fri, Nov 26, 2010 at 7:17 AM, 1Z  wrote:
> > On Nov 26, 6:01 am, Rex Allen  wrote:
> >> So Agrippa's Trilemma revolves around the question of how we can
> >> justify our beliefs.
>
> >> It seems to me that an entirely acceptable solution is just to accept
> >> that we can't justify our beliefs.
>
> > ..in an absolute way. We still can relative to other
> > beliefs. And that isn;t a problem specific to higher-level
> > categories such as reason and logic. The Trilemma applies
> > just as much to microphysical causality
>
> How do you justify your belief that you can justify your beliefs
> relative to other beliefs?


Non-absolutely.

> As for microphysical causality, right, it doesn’t solve any
> ontological problems to introduce it as an explanation because it just
> raises the question “what causes microphysical causality?”

It isn't an absolute explanation. It's still an explanation.
BTW *you* introduced causality in order to deprecate reason
and logic. If you don't believe in physical causality either,
then you should level down.

> And also, if you buy multiple realizability, then you can’t justify
> your belief in one particular microphysical causal structure instead
> of some other functionally isomorphic one.

Yes I can: Occam;s razor. Of course that isn't absolute...

>  As I said before, materialism could conceivably explain human ability
>  and behavior, but in my opinion runs aground at human consciousness.
>  Therefore, I doubt that humans are a complex sort of robot.
>
> >>> Is human consciousness causally effective?
>
> >> I don't believe so, no.
>
> > Then the sense in which we are not robots is somewhat honorific:
> > we are not because we have consciousness, but consc. doesn't
> > explain out behaviour since it doesn't cause anything , so we behave
> > as determined...
>
> OR, there is no reason we behave as we do.

Whatever. I don't  see how you can be a sceptic about
everything and still insist its a fact you're not a robot.


> >> And claiming that consciousness is itself caused just runs into
> >> infinite regress, as you then need to explain what causes the cause of
> >> conscious experience, and so on.
>
> > The claim is more that it causes. And it could be causal under
> > interactive dualism (brain causes consc causes different brains state)
> > and it could be causal under mind brain identity: mind is identical
> > to brain; brain causes; therefore mind identically causes.
>
> If you anesthetize me, the brain is still there.  Where is the mind?

Pfft. If you switch your telly off, you don;t get a picture. Switch
it on again, you do. That doesn't mean the picture is some
additional immaterial thingumajig.

> If you lightly smush my brain in a press, the brain is still there.
> Is the mind still there?

The brain is not there in a meaningful sense. You can't
read a copy of War and Peace tat's been pulped. Obviously
in these contexts "the brain" doesn't just mean so many
electrons, protons, and neutrons, it means something
material that has a certain structure and function. The
atoms and molecules can be replaced over time,
the structure and functions is vital

> Assuming multiple realizability, if you run a simulation of me on a
> computer, the mind is there.  Where is the brain?

If you have one, it is, under those circumstances,
identical to the structural and functioning silicon substrate.

Multiple realisability doesn't preclude token identity.

> Mind-brain identity doesn’t seem so convincing to me.

The world seems real to me.

> >> Therefore, taking the same approach as with Agrippa's Trilemma, it
> >> seems best to just accept that there is no cause for conscious
> >> experience either.
>
> > Again, the trillema only means there is no non-arbitrary ultimate
> > cause.
>
> Well, the Agrippa’s trilemma applies to justification, not “cause” per
> se.  I just said we should apply the same approach and do away with
> the “causal trilemma” by denying its assumptions.

> Though your right in that the causal trilemma does look pretty similar
> to Agrippa’s trilemma.  

They are structurally identical

>Our three choices are:
>
> 1) An uncaused first cause.
> 2) Some sort of circular causation.
> 3) An infinite number of prior causes.
>
> Kant was pretty close to this with his first antinomy of pure reason.
>
> > The trillema does not mean that nothing whatsoever is caused.
> > In any case it is a rather poor reason for dismissing the causal
> > efficacy of consciousness.
>
> The causal trilemma just shows that attempting to explain our
> experiences by invoking a cause merely results in the question “what
> causes the cause”.

And *that* only means you don't have absolute non-arbitray
causes, not that you don't have causes at all

> You don’t get anywhere.
>
> You could just be satisfied with the predictive success of your
> “useful” explanation and not inquire further...but people don’t seem
> to like to stop there.  They go 

Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread 1Z


On Nov 27, 7:21 pm, Evgenii Rudnyi  wrote:
> on 27.11.2010 20:08 1Z said the following:
>
>
>
> > On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allen  wrote:
>
> >> Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your
> >> information could be represented, how likely is it that your
> >> experience really is caused by a biological brain?  Or even by a
> >> representation of a biological brain?
>
> > Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are always
> > more complex, and therefore less likely than "things are the way they
> > seem to be"
>
> Could you please tell what a hypothesis you consider as less complex?

I did.

> As for Occam's razor. Let us consider the statement "The God has created
> everything". Is this more or less complex as compared with the modern
> scientific view?

Is "God+World" more or less simple than "World" ?

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread 1Z


On Nov 27, 7:40 pm, Rex Allen  wrote:
> On Sat, Nov 27, 2010 at 2:08 PM, 1Z  wrote:
>
> > On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allen  wrote:
>
> >> Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your information
> >> could be represented, how likely is it that your experience really is
> >> caused by a biological brain?  Or even by a representation of a
> >> biological brain?
>
> > Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are
> > always more complex, and therefore less likely than
> > "things are the way they seem to be"
>
> Actually not.  We have our experience of the world, which is not
> direct (e.g. colors, illusions, delusions, dreams, etc.).

How do you know? You can't maintain
that indirect realism is true independent
of any metaphysical presumptions.

You can't maintain that it is true because
that is the way the brain works, since it
is a metaphysical presumption that there is such
a thing as a brain as distinct from experience.


You can't maintain that it is a direct subjective
fact that your experiences are only of mental
representations. There is nothing about
an experience that labels it as indirect. You
experience would be the same if it actually
was direct experience of objects.

>  And then we
> have the cause of our experience.
>
> This is true in all cases:  scientific realism, scientific
> materialism, BIV, matrix, other skeptical scenarios.

It is not the same in all cases.

World+Experience

is simpler than

World+Vat/Matrix+Experience

> BIV, matrix, etc. don't introduce additional elements, they just
> arrange the "causal" elements differently.

Wrong. The vat is an additional element

> None are more or less complex than the others.

Wrong

> *My* preferred option is simpler.  Only conscious experience exists,
> uncaused and fundamental.  There is nothing else.

That's non-explanatory. No-one thinks Occams' razor means you should
give up on explanation. "Explanations should be as simple as possible,
but
no simpler"

-- 
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Brent Meeker

On 11/28/2010 12:37 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 27.11.2010 22:19 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 11/27/2010 11:21 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 27.11.2010 20:08 1Z said the following:



On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allen wrote:


Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your
information could be represented, how likely is it that your
experience really is caused by a biological brain? Or even by
a representation of a biological brain?


Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are
always more complex, and therefore less likely than "things are
the way they seem to be"


Could you please tell what a hypothesis you consider as less
complex?

As for Occam's razor. Let us consider the statement "The God has
created everything". Is this more or less complex as compared with
the modern scientific view?


It is more complex than, "Things originated naturally." If you try to
 fill in the details to the same degree in each you have to first
fill in all the details of "Things originated naturally." and *then*
all the details of how God decided on doing that and how He executed
his plan.


Okay, but what then about the next two statements: "A car originated 
naturally" and "A car has been made according to the plan". What 
statement is more complex?




You tell me.  I don't consider Occam's razor the arbiter of truth.

Brent

--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Stephen Paul King

Hi,

   The word "planned" would seem to signify that there exists a mechanism 
(used the the most generic way) that selects that the object of the plan was 
chosen from a collection of possible alternatives with a bias that is not 
necessarily on that is "natural" and thus implies the existence of agency. 
So to say that "X has been made according to the plan" is to say that those 
properties of X result from a means that involves consciousness and thus 
that hypothesis requires the prior existence of a agent to act as the 
planner. The alternative hypothesis given, "X originated naturally." seems 
to not require agency but no measure is implied by either as to the number 
of entities involved so it seems that Occam's razor is unable to select one 
of these hypotheses to cut.

   This looks to me like a false choice fallacy in the making.

Onward!

Stephen

-Original Message- 
From: Evgenii Rudnyi

Sent: Sunday, November 28, 2010 3:37 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Against Mechanism

on 27.11.2010 22:19 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 11/27/2010 11:21 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 27.11.2010 20:08 1Z said the following:



On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allen wrote:


Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your
information could be represented, how likely is it that your
experience really is caused by a biological brain? Or even by
a representation of a biological brain?


Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are
always more complex, and therefore less likely than "things are
the way they seem to be"


Could you please tell what a hypothesis you consider as less
complex?

As for Occam's razor. Let us consider the statement "The God has
created everything". Is this more or less complex as compared with
the modern scientific view?


It is more complex than, "Things originated naturally." If you try to
 fill in the details to the same degree in each you have to first
fill in all the details of "Things originated naturally." and *then*
all the details of how God decided on doing that and how He executed
his plan.


Okay, but what then about the next two statements: "A car originated
naturally" and "A car has been made according to the plan". What
statement is more complex?

--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.

To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.


--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Nov 2010, at 20:08, 1Z wrote:




On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allen  wrote:


Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your information
could be represented, how likely is it that your experience really is
caused by a biological brain?  Or even by a representation of a
biological brain?


Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are
always more complex, and therefore less likely than
"things are the way they seem to be"


That is what explains the success of Aristotelianism. But we can  
easily understand how evolution programmed us to believe this. The  
rise of Platonism, and the birth of science and theology was a  
departure from the idea that "reality is what we see".


Now my point is that if we assume mechanism, then we do have an  
explanation of why and how couplings "consciousness/realities" emerge  
from elementary arithmetic, and it seems to me that elementary  
arithmetic is conceptually simpler than any proposed theory so far.  
The main point is that elementary arithmetic, seen as the theory of  
'everything-including-consciousness', is testable (and up to now  
confirmed).


I can understand that the idea that we are in a matrix is not pleasing  
for some people, but science has to avoid as much as possible any form  
of wishful thinking. And I am not pretending this is true, only that  
it follows from the idea that the brain, or whatever my consciousness  
supervenes on, is Turing emulable. To avoid this you have to introduce  
big infinities in the picture, or, like Jacques Mallah, mysterious  
physical roles, in a computation, to objects having no physical  
activity in that computation.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: advice needed for Star Trek talk

2010-11-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Nov 2010, at 19:05, ronaldheld wrote:


Jason(and any others)
  Both. Level IV Universe is hard to explain even if real. Bruno's
reality is equally hard to convincing present.
  Ronald



Do you agree/understand that if we are machine then we are in  
principle duplicable?  This entails subjective indeterminacy.
All the rest follows from that, and few people have problems to  
understand UDA 1-7.


UDA-8, which justifies immateriality, is slightly more subtle, but if  
you have followed the last conversation on it on the list (with  
Jacques Mallah, Stathis, ..) you could understand than to block the  
movie graph argument you have to attribute a computational role to the  
physical activity of something having non physical activity, and I  
don't see how we could still accept a digital brain in this case. With  
just UDA 1-7 you could already understand that most of quantum  
weirdness (indeterminacy, non-locality, non-clonability) is a  
qualitative almost direct consequence of digital mechanism (even in  
presence of a primitively material universe).


AUDA, the Löbian interview, is another matter because you need  
familiarity with mathematical logic and recursion theory.


Tell me please what you don't understand in the first steps of UDA. I  
am always interested to have an idea of what is it that people don't  
grasp. I am writing some "official" papers now, and that could help.   
Up to now the results are more ignored than criticized, or is  
considered as crap by religious atheist/materialist, without rational  
arguments. Tell me if you have a problem with the subjective (first  
person) indeterminacy. Thanks.


Bruno














On Nov 26, 12:02 am, Jason Resch  wrote:
On Wed, Nov 24, 2010 at 1:50 PM, ronaldheld   
wrote:

Jason:
 I see what you are saying up at our level of understanding, I do  
not

know how to present that in a technically convincing matter.
 Ronald


Which message in particular do you think is difficult to
present convincingly?  Tegmark's ideas that everything is real, or  
the

suggestion that computer simulation might be a legitimate tool for
exploration?

Jason


--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google  
Groups "Everything List" group.

To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com 
.
For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en 
.




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.



Re: Against Mechanism

2010-11-28 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 27.11.2010 22:19 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 11/27/2010 11:21 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 27.11.2010 20:08 1Z said the following:



On Nov 27, 6:49 pm, Rex Allen wrote:


Given that there are an infinite number of ways that your
information could be represented, how likely is it that your
experience really is caused by a biological brain? Or even by
a representation of a biological brain?


Occam's razor: BIV, matrix and other sceptical scenarios are
always more complex, and therefore less likely than "things are
the way they seem to be"


Could you please tell what a hypothesis you consider as less
complex?

As for Occam's razor. Let us consider the statement "The God has
created everything". Is this more or less complex as compared with
the modern scientific view?


It is more complex than, "Things originated naturally." If you try to
 fill in the details to the same degree in each you have to first
fill in all the details of "Things originated naturally." and *then*
all the details of how God decided on doing that and how He executed
his plan.


Okay, but what then about the next two statements: "A car originated 
naturally" and "A car has been made according to the plan". What 
statement is more complex?


--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-l...@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.