Re: Misconceptions of Natural Selection and Evolution

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi,

For reason of sharp time scheduling (I am in a teaching period), I  
will be shorter than usual.


Craig, I still agree with most of your point below, but it contradicts  
the 19th century conception of mechanism, not the 20th century (post  
Turing Church ...) Mechanism.


Bruno

On 26 Feb 2013, at 17:29, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, February 26, 2013 6:30:59 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 25 Feb 2013, at 20:59, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Monday, February 25, 2013 1:26:49 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 25 Feb 2013, at 01:30, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Sunday, February 24, 2013 3:07:12 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 22 Feb 2013, at 17:45, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Thursday, February 21, 2013 12:11:36 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal  
wrote:


On 21 Feb 2013, at 15:06, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Thursday, February 21, 2013 5:58:20 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal  
wrote:


On 20 Feb 2013, at 21:15, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/20/2013 8:02 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Hi John,


On 19 Feb 2013, at 23:28, John Mikes wrote:


Craig, it seems we engaged in a fruitful discussion- thank you.

I want to reflect to a few concepts only from it to clarify  
MY stance.
First my use of a 'model'. There are different models, from  
the sexy young females over the math-etc. descriptions of  
theoretical concepts (some not so sexy). - What I (after  
Robert Rosen?) use by this word is an extract of something,  
we may not know in toto. Close to an 'Occamized' version, but  
cut mostly by ignorance of the 'rest of it', not for added  
clarity. Applied to whatever we know TODAY about the world.  
Or: we THINK WE KNOW.



A scientist know nothing. Just nothing, not even his own  
consciousness.


In science we have only beliefs,


But then, according to you, if they happen to be true they are  
knowledge.


Yes, but we can't know that.

Can we know that we can't know that?


Yes. That something that the machine can prove and know.

How can we know what a machine can prove or know if our own  
knowledge is only belief?


Because some time our beliefs are true.

What does 'true' mean if we can only believe?


We can't define that, but we have a lot of example.

Suppose we meet and that I give you a slap. Then Bruno gave a slap  
to Craig would be true. It would not be true, if we meet, or not,  
and don't give you a slap.


How do you know that we met or didn't meet? Maybe it was just a  
dream?


Then it is true, or false, with respect to the dream. I was only  
illustrating a concept, known to de not definable, although  
approximable.


There isn't necessarily a particular condition which is true or  
false in a dream. More often it just 'seems like' someone is your  
old college roommate in one sense, but maybe your brother also. Both  
truth and belief here are a posteriori to the sense experience of  
the dream itself, which is a gestalt and not meaningfully described  
by either-or expectations with respect to either belief or truth. In  
a dream, we don't know what we experience and we don't not-know what  
we experience. This is a truer representation of sense than public  
realism, which is disambiguated by thermodynamic irreversibility  
among the total collection of experiences.








When we believe something, it means that we believe that it is  
true, even when keeping in mind that it is a belief, and that we  
might be wrong, that is not true.


Not necessarily. There may be no objective truth quality.


?

Sense pre-figures truth. Truth is a proportion or qualitative ratio  
of sense agreements against disagreements.






We may be creating belief synthetically by our expectation.


That is called wishful thinking.

No, I'm talking about the idea that we have no beliefs at all until  
we question them. It may be an analytical abstraction that is a  
posteriori. We don't literally 'have a belief' that the sky is blue  
- we participate in a universe in which it seems that the sky is  
blue. It's a bit of sleight of hand to insert this presumption of  
belief where in fact the experience of the sky's color is not  
derived from any proposition or logical relation.



If your criteria is wishful thinking, that might explain your  
question begging type of 'argument'.




If you ask someone whether they believe that eating meat is  
immoral, they may not have had an opinion one way or another about  
it before you asked. There may not be an expectation that their  
spontaneously projected 'belief' reflects something that is 'true',  
but just an expression of what makes sense to them - what feels  
best in their mind or seems appropriate for their idea of their own  
character.


I think it is better to try to see on what we agree, and build from  
that. Statements like eating meat is immoral are very complex high  
level statements not well suited for reasoning.


If what I'm saying is true, eating meat is immoral is a very  
simple statement on the personal level, and ideal for pointing out  
the 

Re: Tim Maudlin

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 26 Feb 2013, at 19:57, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 2/26/2013 6:02 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 26 Feb 2013, at 01:39, Stephen P. King wrote:


Dear Bruno,

  Have you seen how Tim Maudlin is now a vigorous proponent of the  
existence of Time as Fundamental?


In his paper on comp, he seems to favor materialism against comp,  
so this is not so astonishing. Likewise he depart from the MWI.


Hi Bruno,

   Yes, I agree, he does seem to assume some form of physicalism.






Could subsets of your UD be the Stone dual of a line, as Maudlin  
defines them?




   Are subsets of the UD equivalent to a Boolean Algebra?


The UD is not a set.

But doing some effort to translate what you say, the answer is NO. You  
can make the UD into a set by modeling it by the set of sigma_1  
sentences.  But the negation of a sigma_1 sentence is not necessarily  
sigma_1, so it gives not a boolean algebra.


Bruno







Please elaborate.

Bruno




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Onward!

Stephen


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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 26 Feb 2013, at 21:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if  
we don't assume them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing  
Universal), then we cannot derive them.


I'm not sure how you mean that?


I meant that you cannot build a theory, simpler than arithmetic in  
appearance, from which you can derive the existence of the numbers.  
All theories which want talk about the numbers have to be turing  
universal.
So I meant this in the concrete sense that if you write your axioms,  
and want talk about numbers, you need to postulate them, or  
equivalent. You can derive the numbers from the equational theory:


Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

+ few equality rules,

But that theory is already Turing universal, and assume as much the  
number than elementary arithmetic.





We know that we experience individual objects and so we can count  
them by putting them in one-to-one relation with fingers or notches  
or marks.  So what are you calling an assumption in this?


A theory is supposed to abstract from the experiences. The experiences  
motivates the theory, but does not justify it logically.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: Misconceptions of Natural Selection and Evolution

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 26 Feb 2013, at 22:03, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 4:50 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
That does not work. We belong automatically to an infinity of  
computations. With comp, the physical reality is unique, and  
derivable from 0, s, + and * (and the usual axioms). But cosmos or  
branch of a multiverse can be numerous, but before they  
differentiated, we are in all of them.


That raises questions like, Where were we when dinosaurs roamed the  
Earth?  Or more generally does the physics of every universe  
consistent with comp include quasi-classical physics?


I think so. But to justify this *many* open problem, in arithmetic,  
needs to be solved.




It seems that it is necessary for brains to exist and to have the  
ideas on which comp is based.  Are we to regard this as just a  
fortunate anthropic accident?


I am not sure. Difficult question.

Bruno



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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 26 Feb 2013, at 23:38, John Mikes wrote:


Bruno, I appreciate your effort to reply to my silly questions.


Question are never silly.
Answer are always silly.





I accept your positions, nothing 'new' or 'surprising' in them now.
Yet I raised one little suspicion in

...How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that  
if we don't assume them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing  
Universal), then we cannot derive them...


of circularity: we have to assume them to be able to derive them.


Well, that the definition of an axiom. We just accept it, if only for  
the sake of the argument. Then we can prove them, by using the rule  
that we accept the axioms. It is not circular, it is based on the fact  
that we accept that p - p, or the rule that from p, we can derive p.


For example in group theory, we accept that there is a neutral  
element. Then later one, if we are asked to justified the use of a  
neutral element, we can just say that we are working in a group, in  
which it exists, by definition, or axiom.






If not, not.
BTW I feel free to disagree with your just assumed argument  
WITHOUT being obliged to produce a (better?) counter-theory.


That is your right. No doubt.






Then again:
...Numbers have nothing to do with sign. Signs are human tools to  
talk about them...


Talk about WHAT? if they are NOT quantizing factors, NOT  
representing signs, how could you IDENTIFY the  t e r m :  
NUMBER?   (not just by another word of course).


By doing a lot of exercise, like in high school, you can develop a  
familiarity with them, and accept some defining axioms. The brain does  
not really help; you need your heart.
I might ask you how you identify the term woman. It is the same  
difficulty. We have to live with many things that we cannot defined.






It seems your mental base builds ON numbers (whatever they may be) -  
not on qualia (musical complexity, emotions, feelings, etc. that do  
not spring from 'numbers').


That is due to cultural factor. But then in science, we want our  
theories not depending on interpretation, still less on emotions. But  
in private we sometimes point on them, like Einstein said that a  
theory, to be true, needs to be beautiful. Same with the numbers.  
Mathematicians are usually super-emotional beings, for the best, and  
the worst.






Sorry about the last sentence (conclusion of the previous passage)  
in which I used Nature instead of world existence or whatever.


Thanks for reassuring me.



The reductionistic part of the totality to which we assign all we  
think about.


... to which some people assign what they all think about, I would say.
About nature, I am agnostic. But when I'm in the comp mood, I  
definitely don't believe in it.


Bruno






JM


On Tue, Feb 26, 2013 at 4:24 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:

John,

On 24 Feb 2013, at 21:07, John Mikes wrote:

Bruno you wrote (among a big HOOPLA of indentations galore, an art  
to measure each one into a proper participant):


...Explain us what is an electrical reaction in a brain without  
using 2+2=4

Bruno 

Explain, why 2+2=4 - without (human?) quantizing - even without  
using dots or marks and 'counting' them. Numbers? a joke.

 Because you said so?  How did it arise?


I assume them. It is part of the card I put on the table. Feel free  
to develop another theory.


How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if we  
don't assume them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing  
Universal), then we cannot derive them.







What is 'counting'? assigning SOMEHOW a 'heap' to a sign you  
invented?


Numbers have nothing to do with sign. Signs are human tools to talk  
about them. Numbers status is independent of the signs used to refer  
to them, a bit like galaxies in the physical universe are usually  
supposed to be independent of human telescope.






How 'bout another logic, another vision? (Zarathustran?)


How could I understand what you mean by another logic or another  
vision without using the intuition of numbers?

This just make no sense for me.
Also numbers have nothing to do with logic. Again, logic is a mental  
tool, and formal logics presuppose our understanding of numbers.  
Then computationalism derived eight important different logics that  
the numbers already develop by themselves to understand themselves,  
so here you have your another logics. Numbers agree with you,  
somehow. But you have to recognize them to be able to listen to  
them, and indeed go farer than the human views.






Go back and back and back in your presumptions/assumptions into  
more-and-more generalizations and you will find the human image you  
substitute for  Nature (call it reality, existence, The World, - or  
Whatever (Everything).


I do not assume Nature.
The distinction between nature and human is a human artifice.
More generally, the distinction between nature and numbers is a  
number artifice. It is an 

Re: Misconceptions of Natural Selection and Evolution

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 26 Feb 2013, at 23:51, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 1:46 PM, John Mikes wrote:
Brent: forgive my weak 'brain': in the turmoil of BackAndForces on  
this list it faded what you (really?) mean by

 quasi classical physics


I mean the world model of Newton and Maxwell plus a little  
randomness from QM: consisting of distinct objects in definite  
locations, not wave functions in infinite dimensional Hilbert space.



  brains


Biological information processors found within skulls.


  and what 'ideas' is (your) 'comp' based on?


?? My comp?



I think whatever we 'experience' is a (fortunate?) anthropic  
accident (incident?).
I put (your) to comp, because I am not sure about Bruno's IF  
true - and you did not refer to it either. 


Dinos? We know so little about the past of this world - even about  
not-so ancient HUMAN past (Dravidians) so infulential into our  
present world. Or how the Simians straightened up their spine to  
become human? (I am in favor of the 'aequatic ape' dream).  And  
others.


Dinosaurs were just an example.  I wondered what Bruno meant by  
saying we were here from the beginning.


I am not sure having said that. I might have mean this in the  
arithmetical ontological sense perhaps. If you find the quote I can  
say more.





Was he denying there was a pre-human past?



Certainly not. The prehuman-past is quite plausible, but it is not  
something absolute. It is something relative to many computations,  
which exists out of time and space.








I hope you are not talking about TOE derived at Dino-time, or later.
(BTW: was a neuron of a dino bigger than that of today's mouse?
With what size atoms? I asked this questions from many bio-people  
over the past 50 years - no answer so far.


Some of them were certainly longer.

Isaac Asimov once speculated that the size of dinosaurs was limited  
because the larger an animal the faster it can run, but dinosaurs  
had unmylenated neurons (like those in our brains) which are quite  
slow in transmitting signals.  So when a dinosaur got very big he  
could run off a cliff right in front of him because the signal from  
his eyes to brain to feet would propagate more slowly than his  
forward motion.  :-)


Lol,


Bruno





Brent


Maybe the Savants of this list can answer it?)

JM

On Tue, Feb 26, 2013 at 4:03 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:

On 2/26/2013 4:50 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
That does not work. We belong automatically to an infinity of  
computations. With comp, the physical reality is unique, and  
derivable from 0, s, + and * (and the usual axioms). But cosmos or  
branch of a multiverse can be numerous, but before they  
differentiated, we are in all of them.


That raises questions like, Where were we when dinosaurs roamed  
the Earth?  Or more generally does the physics of every universe  
consistent with comp include quasi-classical physics?  It seems  
that it is necessary for brains to exist and to have the ideas on  
which comp is based.  Are we to regard this as just a fortunate  
anthropic accident?


Brent
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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Feb 2013, at 00:01, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 2:41 PM, John Mikes wrote:

Brent:
you jumped into 'counting'. What would that be without numbers?


It's a one-to-one relation between objects.  If you invent a special  
set of tokens (1, 2, 3) that everybody agrees on (i.e. a part of  
language) to use in the one-to-one relation then those are numbers.   
But I wasn't pretending to do without numbers; I was pointing out  
how they derived from experience - they were not just assumed.


The fact that we see the world as composed of discrete objects  
(instead of wave functions or quantum fields or something else)  
might be an accident of the development of this universe - or it  
might be a necessary consequence of something about universes.  I  
was just asking whether Bruno's comp had any bearing on that question.


It certainly has, but it is difficult, because we can't throw out the  
fact that some very special programs, or collection of programs, win  
the measure battle for the first person indeterminacy problem.


As long as physics is not derived from arithmetic, we can't answer to  
that question.
I will not speculate, as people could confuse what is already derived  
and what is plausible, given the empirical facts and what we already  
know in computer science.
Cluster of different sort of multiverses remain possible, especially  
if we derive less than QM from comp. Comp leads to a criterium to  
distinguish geographical truth from physical truth, but we have to  
progress a lot to be able to apply it.


Bruno




Brent



On Tue, Feb 26, 2013 at 3:40 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:

On 2/26/2013 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if  
we don't assume them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing  
Universal), then we cannot derive them.


I'm not sure how you mean that?  We know that we experience  
individual objects and so we can count them by putting them in one- 
to-one relation with fingers or notches or marks.  So what are you  
calling an assumption in this?


Brent
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On Perception-- A description of the Perceiver provided by Leibniz, unique in western philosophy

2013-02-27 Thread Roger Clough
Hi - Roger Clough

Peception -which involves the final, recognition step of epistemology- is 
impossible without the 
Perceiver, which might be thought of as the end entity that stops the infinite 
regress implied by the 
necessity of a homunculus within a homunculus within a homunculus...etc.. 
Dennett 
describes this problem in terms of what he mockingly calls the Cartesian 
Theater. Dennett 
seems to solve the poblem by a fiat, returning to a monism of the perceiver and 
the flesh of the 
brain. It is not widely known that in thew 17th century, Leibniz had described 
the 
Perceiver as the Supreme Monad, the dominant, only one which which does 
actively perceive, then 
returns the perception to the individual monad whose eyes had taken in the 
image. 

No other western philosopher seems to have provided us with such a definite, 
unique solution 
to the problem of perception, which is, in essence, the solution to the 
mind-body problem.

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Re: Tim Maudlin

2013-02-27 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/27/2013 5:18 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

[SPK] Are subsets of the UD equivalent to a Boolean Algebra?


The UD is not a set.


Dear Bruno,

Why are you such a literalist?Are the strings that make up the 
UD equivalent to a Boolean algebra?




But doing some effort to translate what you say, the answer is NO. You 
can make the UD into a set by modeling it by the set of sigma_1 
sentences.  But the negation of a sigma_1 sentence is not necessarily 
sigma_1, so it gives not a boolean algebra.



I was only using the word 'subset' to indicate the components of 
the UD, not a literal subset. Since the UD is not a set, it obviously 
cannot have subsets, so you should be able to deduce that I am not 
asking a question that implies otherwise. Let us try again. Are the 
components of the UD equivalent to Boolean algebras? Yes or No. If not, 
what relation do they have with boolean algebras?




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Stephen


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Re: The Plant Teachers

2013-02-27 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Mon, Feb 25, 2013 at 8:40 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 25 Feb 2013, at 14:56, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:



 On Fri, Feb 22, 2013 at 8:14 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 22 Feb 2013, at 17:21, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

 The people who most hate smokers are ex-smokers.

 - PGC's father

 Since this thread has become a bit personal, I offer the view of a former
 judge of the German supreme court, who himself was not a smoker, nor did
 ever smoke:

 It's not really the passive smoking that bothers people, with exception
 of course to people trapped in a close working environment where everybody
 smokes and smoking is permitted. It's not the smell on their clothes
 either, since we have invented washing machines and dry cleaning. We need
 an attitude change instead of more rules: I think public spaces should
 regulate themselves and find creative ways to not lock anybody out, such
 as air vents over smoking sections of a bar, or that smokers at a bar will
 restrain themselves and be prepared to step outside if a guest with asthma
 arrives etc.

 The main issue is that everybody has vices and everybody in Germany has
 the constitutional right to act irresponsibly on personal choice matters
 that do not significantly hurt others. Significant harm is an open term
 here, to be calibrated by judges case-by-case. So the outrage on public
 smoking is people projecting their judgement of their own vices onto easy
 targets: passive smoking is a great example. Nobody has a problem walking
 through smoggy Berlin, Los Angeles, New York where particle emissions from
 fossil fuels of their SUVs also driven by non-smokers 'make my clothes
 stink, make me inhale carcinogens, cancerous toxins. Indeed, studies
 confirm that some cities have been deemed equivalent to smoking a few
 cigarettes a day, in terms of inhaled toxins.

 So why the fuss? People like to project what they dislike about
 themselves onto others behavior and feel the righteousness of judging right
 from wrong. I know this because I have been a judge all of my life; but I
 also know that the feeling is illusory and that these questions are much
 more difficult than our personal ethics. You can find temporary solutions
 to such issues and minimize harm. But you'll never get rid of the problem
 via regulation. You just move towards more extremism and uniformity.

 After all it is our imperfections that make us interesting. I've never
 smoked in my life, but passive smoke doesn't bother me, I even appreciate
 the smell of pipe tobacco. It's like I am transported to the orient.

 On Wed, Feb 20, 2013 at 6:27 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 20 Feb 2013, at 14:59, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 All classical psychedelics exhibit anti-addictive properties. Sure,
 people can't do mescaline or LSD regularly enough, i.e. every few days to
 every day,

 How is using every day (or every few days) not an addictive behavior ?
 Seems quite strange to say that to have **anti** addictive properties, you
 should use it like an addict, seems contradictory.


  This does not necessarily follow. Many people can use some medication
 daily, without getting addicted.
 Taking salvia everyday asks for a big effort. I call it the huile de
 foie de morue of the drugs (Cod liver oil).

 ...
 In fact, except in forum, I see very few people developing an interest
 for that experience (except as a medication). But then I don't know so much
 people interested in the consequence of comp or in serious theology
 either. Salvia has this in common with comp: it does not go handy with
 wishful thinking. It has other relationship with comp, *like insisting
 on some secrecy of a part of the experience*, which corroborates the
 G/G* distinction.


 And that is the part which I have difficulty with and why I keep it at a
 close but rare distance. The joke seems immense and euphoric in its own
 terms, but the relevant brain subroutines, if you permit, are offended by
 every letter I type here, so there is some sense of stepping over a
 threshold that is a prohibited hack. Intuitively a question would be: So
 why was I invited? The small composer and the skeptic in me don't like
 this, even though they know ultimately resistance is futile.


 Yes, I understand.

 I will not add much, as I might say things on which I have to remain
 silent ... if I want to maintain good relation with the lady. :)

 Now, the secrecy problematic is a constant problem in theology, but also
 in a large part of psychology and medicine. We can guess it is normal, as
 brain are wired for terrestrial survival, which on some point can conflict
 with other form of survival. Then with comp it can be formally related to
 the fact that Bx - ~ x, admits solutions, like self-consistency (Dt) by
 Gödel's second incompleteness theorem. The whole G* minus G describes the
 landscape of the correct machine's secret. Comp makes some secret
 conditionally communicable, in the form 

Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Feb 25, 2013  Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

when a computer is operating correctly it can most certainly tell the
 difference between a audio and a video file,


  Absolutely false.


How so?

 It can tell the difference between one file format and another,


Well that's all I said.

 but there is no relation between a file format and the ability for that
 file to be output to a screen as opposed to a speaker


And yet when I play a video on a web page my computer always sends the
audio signal to the speaker and the video signal to the screen and not the
other way round. How can it do that it it doesn't know if the output should
go to the screen or speaker? Is it just lucky?

 I have opened music files before as bitmaps. You can still open an mp3
 file as text in Windows by renaming it's extender.


Yes, and in exactly the same manner I can examine your ideas and I can also
open your skull and examine your brain; one way of looking at things does
not contradict the other but are complementary, and a computer can look at
things both ways.

 If a computer could tell the difference between an audio file and a video
 file, you wouldn't need file extenders


Some modern programs can get along without file extensions, although if you
deliberately try to confuse it by giving it a incorrect extension the
conflicting information will make the machine queasy; and if you receive
information from your eyes that conflicts with information from your inner
ear you will get motion sickness and feel nauseous.

 As you can see from my sample above, your assertion is false. The machine
is happy to crap out ASCII garbage instead of music

You specifically told the machine to interpret it as ASCII, so why are you
complaining that it did exactly as you requested? You're saying that the
ability of computers to look at any file as a bitmap or as a bunch of ASCII
symbols shows some sort of inherent limitation of computers, and that makes
no sense.

John K Clark

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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Wednesday, February 27, 2013 11:25:41 AM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Mon, Feb 25, 2013  Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:wrote:

 when a computer is operating correctly it can most certainly tell the 
 difference between a audio and a video file,


  Absolutely false.


 How so?


Because if it could, then it wouldn't need any identifying bytes in the 
file to associate it with a program. Even if it could that would only 
represent a more advanced file analysis function, not any kind of audio or 
video sensitivity.
 


  It can tell the difference between one file format and another,


 Well that's all I said.


No, you said when a computer is operating correctly it can most certainly 
tell the difference between a audio and a video file.

You are missing the enormous leap between discerning the differences 
between two differently labeled files, and any sort of audio or video 
presentation qualities. This is the difference that I am pointing out in 
this thread: A geometric form like a circle is not the same thing as a list 
of numerical coordinates. 


  but there is no relation between a file format and the ability for that 
 file to be output to a screen as opposed to a speaker


 And yet when I play a video on a web page my computer always sends the 
 audio signal to the speaker and the video signal to the screen and not the 
 other way round. How can it do that it it doesn't know if the output should 
 go to the screen or speaker? Is it just lucky?


Uh, no. The web browser is explicitly instructed by the code of the file 
which application list is appropriate. If it says mp3 or wav, then the OS 
will try the default app to process that file. Whether or not you even have 
your speakers plugged in means nothing. The computer has no idea what audio 
is.
 


  I have opened music files before as bitmaps. You can still open an mp3 
 file as text in Windows by renaming it's extender.


 Yes, and in exactly the same manner I can examine your ideas and I can 
 also open your skull and examine your brain; one way of looking at things 
 does not contradict the other but are complementary, and a computer can 
 look at things both ways.


A computer can only look at everything one way - as a binary code. It is 
the job of all computer peripherals to act as a medium for accessing a 
facsimile of external events as binary code. This is the opposite of what 
consciousness does. We can listen to a song or have a completely different 
experience watching that song encoded as video graphics - but the computer 
has no experience either way. Even people with synesthesia can recognize 
the difference between color and sound, even when they are experienced 
together in an unconventional way. A computer doesn't know anything about 
the world beyond its peripherals. It can't tell whether a bitstream ends up 
in your ears or eyes. It doesn't know if it's running on a laptop in the 
middle of a warzone or on a virtual server in a data center.


  If a computer could tell the difference between an audio file and a 
 video file, you wouldn't need file extenders


 Some modern programs can get along without file extensions, although if 
 you deliberately try to confuse it by giving it a incorrect extension the 
 conflicting information will make the machine queasy; and if you receive 
 information from your eyes that conflicts with information from your inner 
 ear you will get motion sickness and feel nauseous.


You don't need file extensions in every OS, but the fact that they exist at 
all should show you how helpless a computer is to figure out anything that 
it isn't programmed to check for. There is no condition which will make a 
machine queasy, and our sense of queasiness is not in any way a logical 
result of a data mismatch. If your ears and eyes had a conflict, it could 
just as easily be presented as a ringing in our ears or profuse sweating or 
hallucinations of Mayan calendars.


  As you can see from my sample above, your assertion is false. The 
 machine is happy to crap out ASCII garbage instead of music

 You specifically told the machine to interpret it as ASCII, so why are you 
 complaining that it did exactly as you requested? 


It's not interpreting it as ASCII, it is identifying it as ASCII. It has no 
memory that it ever was anything else and couldn't tell that it was related 
to music if its life depended on it.
 

 You're saying that the ability of computers to look at any file as a 
 bitmap or as a bunch of ASCII symbols shows some sort of inherent 
 limitation of computers, and that makes no sense.


The limitation is not that they can open a file as a bitmap or ASCI, its 
that they can't tell the difference between the two. If I tell it a file is 
text, it thinks its text. If someone hands a person a book, and tells them 
that it is dinner, that wouldn't really work as well.

Everything that you are saying indicates that you swallow the 'pathetic 
fallacy' 100%, and even 

Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Monday, February 25, 2013 1:29:20 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Sun, Feb 24, 2013 Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:wrote:


 It is not ad hominem if it really is blather. I would define blather 
 as a sound or a sequence of ASCII symbols with zero informational content 
 because it means nothing, as in a burp, or because it means something self 
 contradictory, such as free will or X is not random or deterministic. 


  Translation: Anything that I don't agree with makes no sense and 
 whoever says these things is subject to my ad hominem comments in lieu of 
 valid criticism.


 It is a basic law of logic that if X is not Y and X is not not Y then X is 
 gibberish,


X = alcohol   Y = poison. 

becomes alcohol is not poison and alcohol isn't not poison

Can you see how narrow your concepts of logic are and how they have nothing 
to do with reality? Can you see that in sufficient quantities alcohol is 
indeed a poison but that is also is a popular beverage which does not have 
to carry a POISON label?

and so obviously anyone asserting X is speaking gibberish. 


And obviously anyone asserting that the actual world can be reduced to 
simplistic distinctions is speaking solipsism.
 

 So if free will is not random and free will is not not random, or 
 alternately if free will is not deterministic and free will is not not 
 deterministic then free will is gibberish, 


Does that mean that alcohol is gibberish too, because it is neither 100% 
poison nor 100% not poison?
 

 and so obviously anyone asserting free will has abandoned logic and is 
 speaking gibberish. 


If there were no free will then nobody could choose to assert anything, 
abandon anything, or speak anything other than gibberish.

http://25.media.tumblr.com/208bb5a43ab31fd3250d9d2c7be4462f/tumblr_mfyu79B9qB1qeenqko1_500.jpg

 

 And it's not ad hominem if it's true.


 Why would it make a difference whether your personal accusations are true 
or not? The point is that they have nothing to do with the topic being 
discussed. If I say your position is robotic idiocy, it doesn't matter 
whether it's true, it still contributes nothing and distracts from the 
issue. What do my sentiments about you or your positions have to do with 
anything?

Craig


   John K Clark






  

  

  
 A statement presented without justification, like computers can never 
 be conscious like you and I are is not blather, just dull and dumb. 


 Yet that is the opinion which I share with a neuroscientist who actually 
 works in the field. Maybe your armchair opinion is just dull, dumb, blather?

 Craig
  


   John K Clark 




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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread meekerdb

On 2/27/2013 2:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 26 Feb 2013, at 21:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if we don't assume 
them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing Universal), then we cannot derive them.


I'm not sure how you mean that?


I meant that you cannot build a theory, simpler than arithmetic in appearance, from 
which you can derive the existence of the numbers. All theories which want talk about 
the numbers have to be turing universal.
So I meant this in the concrete sense that if you write your axioms, and want talk about 
numbers, you need to postulate them, or equivalent. You can derive the numbers from the 
equational theory:


Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

+ few equality rules,

But that theory is already Turing universal, and assume as much the number than 
elementary arithmetic.





We know that we experience individual objects and so we can count them by putting them 
in one-to-one relation with fingers or notches or marks.  So what are you calling an 
assumption in this?


A theory is supposed to abstract from the experiences. The experiences motivates the 
theory, but does not justify it logically.


But justify logically seems like a bizarre concept to me.  We just make up rules of 
logic so that inferences from some axioms, which we also make up, preserve 'true'.  To say 
that it is justified logically seems to mean no more than we have avoided inconsistency 
insofar as we know.  Sure it's important that our model of the world not have 
inconsistencies (at least if our rules of inference include ex contradictione sequitur 
quodlibet) but mere consistency doesn't justify anything.


Brent

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Re: Misconceptions of Natural Selection and Evolution

2013-02-27 Thread John Mikes
Sorry, I am superficialin my words. Your Comp referred to the idea your
'biological information processors in your skull' handles when you consider
Bruno's comp.

I missed that Asimov spot. He probably did not consider the neuronal input
on 'running' vs. acknowledging the cliff. I participated for 2 decades in
an enjoyable Wednesday Brownbag Lunch with the Drew Univ. ret. professors
when one of us calculated out for us that it is physically impossible to
play base-ball: the time to process visually the 'throw' is longer than the
travelling time of the ball, so nobody can hit it. What led to 'deep'
philosophical discussions.G

My question about 'atomic size' was in consideration of the map of a neuron
and the size avalable in the skull. Dinos did not parade brains of million
times more than ours. Remember the Neandertals? with larger skulls and not
necessarily more sophisticated brain-complexity than the Cro-Magnons? I
always asked how much fat or other irrelevant matter was filling those bone
boxes? Anthropologists do not like such questions.

JM

On Tue, Feb 26, 2013 at 5:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/26/2013 1:46 PM, John Mikes wrote:

 Brent: forgive my weak 'brain': in the turmoil of BackAndForces on this
 list it faded what you (really?) mean by
  quasi classical physics


 I mean the world model of Newton and Maxwell plus a little randomness from
 QM: consisting of distinct objects in definite locations, not wave
 functions in infinite dimensional Hilbert space.

brains


 Biological information processors found within skulls.


and what 'ideas' is (your) 'comp' based on?


 ?? My comp?



 I think whatever we 'experience' is a (fortunate?) anthropic accident
 (incident?).
 I put (your) to comp, because I am not sure about Bruno's IF true - and
 you did not refer to it either. 

  Dinos? We know so little about the past of this world - even about
 not-so ancient HUMAN past (Dravidians) so infulential into our present
 world. Or how the Simians straightened up their spine to become human? (I
 am in favor of the 'aequatic ape' dream).  And others.


 Dinosaurs were just an example.  I wondered what Bruno meant by saying we
 were here from the beginning.  Was he denying there was a pre-human past?



  I hope you are not talking about TOE derived at Dino-time, or later.
 (BTW: was a *neuron* of a dino bigger than that of today's mouse?
 With what size atoms? I asked this questions from many bio-people over the
 past 50 years - no answer so far.


 Some of them were certainly longer.

 Isaac Asimov once speculated that the size of dinosaurs was limited
 because the larger an animal the faster it can run, but dinosaurs had
 unmylenated neurons (like those in our brains) which are quite slow in
 transmitting signals.  So when a dinosaur got very big he could run off a
 cliff right in front of him because the signal from his eyes to brain to
 feet would propagate more slowly than his forward motion.  :-)

 Brent

  Maybe the Savants of this list can answer it?)

  JM

 On Tue, Feb 26, 2013 at 4:03 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/26/2013 4:50 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 That does not work. We belong automatically to an infinity of
 computations. With comp, the physical reality is unique, and derivable from
 0, s, + and * (and the usual axioms). But cosmos or branch of a multiverse
 can be numerous, but before they differentiated, we are in all of them.


  That raises questions like, Where were we when dinosaurs roamed the
 Earth?  Or more generally does the physics of every universe consistent
 with comp include quasi-classical physics?  It seems that it is necessary
 for brains to exist and to have the ideas on which comp is based.  Are we
 to regard this as just a fortunate anthropic accident?

 Brent
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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread John Mikes
Allow me please, one more remark:
my ID for an axiom is *a ground-rule derived to facilitate the acceptance
of a theory.*
I suspect the axioms were invented AFTER the theoretical considerations to
make them acceptable. They are called axioms because we cannot justify
their acceptability.
I am not ready to defend this.
JM
On Wed, Feb 27, 2013 at 2:40 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/27/2013 2:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 26 Feb 2013, at 21:40, meekerdb wrote:

  On 2/26/2013 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if we
 don't assume them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing Universal),
 then we cannot derive them.


 I'm not sure how you mean that?


  I meant that you cannot build a theory, simpler than arithmetic in
 appearance, from which you can derive the existence of the numbers. All
 theories which want talk about the numbers have to be turing universal.
 So I meant this in the concrete sense that if you write your axioms, and
 want talk about numbers, you need to postulate them, or equivalent. You can
 derive the numbers from the equational theory:

  Kxy = x
 Sxyz = xz(yz)

  + few equality rules,

  But that theory is already Turing universal, and assume as much the
 number than elementary arithmetic.




  We know that we experience individual objects and so we can count them
 by putting them in one-to-one relation with fingers or notches or marks.
 So what are you calling an assumption in this?


  A theory is supposed to abstract from the experiences. The experiences
 motivates the theory, but does not justify it logically.


 But justify logically seems like a bizarre concept to me.  We just make
 up rules of logic so that inferences from some axioms, which we also make
 up, preserve 'true'.  To say that it is justified logically seems to mean
 no more than we have avoided inconsistency insofar as we know.  Sure it's
 important that our model of the world not have inconsistencies (at least if
 our rules of inference include ex contradictione sequitur quodlibet) but
 mere consistency doesn't justify anything.

 Brent

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Re: Tim Maudlin

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Feb 2013, at 13:58, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 2/27/2013 5:18 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

[SPK] Are subsets of the UD equivalent to a Boolean Algebra?


The UD is not a set.


Dear Bruno,

   Why are you such a literalist?


Don't use technical terms, in that case.




 Are the strings that make up the UD equivalent to a Boolean algebra?


The UD is one program. It is one string. And UD* is an infinitely  
complex structure, roughly equivalent to sigma_1 truth, and structured  
from inside by the 8 hypostases, none being boolean.



Bruno






But doing some effort to translate what you say, the answer is NO.  
You can make the UD into a set by modeling it by the set of sigma_1  
sentences.  But the negation of a sigma_1 sentence is not  
necessarily sigma_1, so it gives not a boolean algebra.



   I was only using the word 'subset' to indicate the components of  
the UD, not a literal subset. Since the UD is not a set, it  
obviously cannot have subsets, so you should be able to deduce that  
I am not asking a question that implies otherwise. Let us try again.  
Are the components of the UD equivalent to Boolean algebras? Yes or  
No. If not, what relation do they have with boolean algebras?




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Onward!

Stephen


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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Feb 2013, at 20:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/27/2013 2:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 26 Feb 2013, at 21:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if  
we don't assume them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing  
Universal), then we cannot derive them.


I'm not sure how you mean that?


I meant that you cannot build a theory, simpler than arithmetic in  
appearance, from which you can derive the existence of the numbers.  
All theories which want talk about the numbers have to be turing  
universal.
So I meant this in the concrete sense that if you write your  
axioms, and want talk about numbers, you need to postulate them, or  
equivalent. You can derive the numbers from the equational theory:


Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

+ few equality rules,

But that theory is already Turing universal, and assume as much the  
number than elementary arithmetic.





We know that we experience individual objects and so we can count  
them by putting them in one-to-one relation with fingers or  
notches or marks.  So what are you calling an assumption in this?


A theory is supposed to abstract from the experiences. The  
experiences motivates the theory, but does not justify it logically.


But justify logically seems like a bizarre concept to me.  We just  
make up rules of logic so that inferences from some axioms, which we  
also make up, preserve 'true'.



We have intuition and/or evidences for accepting the axiom. Here the  
question is really: do you accept the axiom of Peano Arithmetic (for  
example). And with comp we don't need more. Then we prove theorems,  
which can be quite non trivial.




To say that it is justified logically seems to mean no more than  
we have avoided inconsistency insofar as we know.


Yes. We can't hope for more. But in case of arithmetic, we do have  
intuition. Well, in physics too.





  Sure it's important that our model of the world not have  
inconsistencies (at least if our rules of inference include ex  
contradictione sequitur quodlibet) but mere consistency doesn't  
justify anything.


Consistency justifies our existence. I would say. We are ourself  
hypothetical with comp. We are divine hypotheses, somehow. I think you  
ask too much for a justification. I don't think that what you ask is  
possible, even if I am pretty sure that x + 0 = x, x + s(y) = s(x +  
y), etc.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread meekerdb

On 2/27/2013 7:17 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 27 Feb 2013, at 20:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/27/2013 2:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 26 Feb 2013, at 21:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if we don't assume 
them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing Universal), then we cannot derive them.


I'm not sure how you mean that?


I meant that you cannot build a theory, simpler than arithmetic in appearance, from 
which you can derive the existence of the numbers. All theories which want talk about 
the numbers have to be turing universal.
So I meant this in the concrete sense that if you write your axioms, and want talk 
about numbers, you need to postulate them, or equivalent. You can derive the numbers 
from the equational theory:


Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

+ few equality rules,

But that theory is already Turing universal, and assume as much the number than 
elementary arithmetic.





We know that we experience individual objects and so we can count them by putting 
them in one-to-one relation with fingers or notches or marks.  So what are you 
calling an assumption in this?


A theory is supposed to abstract from the experiences. The experiences motivates the 
theory, but does not justify it logically.


But justify logically seems like a bizarre concept to me. We just make up rules of 
logic so that inferences from some axioms, which we also make up, preserve 'true'.



We have intuition and/or evidences for accepting the axiom. Here the question is really: 
do you accept the axiom of Peano Arithmetic (for example). And with comp we don't need 
more. Then we prove theorems, which can be quite non trivial.




To say that it is justified logically seems to mean no more than we have avoided 
inconsistency insofar as we know.


Yes. We can't hope for more. But in case of arithmetic, we do have intuition. Well, in 
physics too.





  Sure it's important that our model of the world not have inconsistencies (at least if 
our rules of inference include ex contradictione sequitur quodlibet) but mere 
consistency doesn't justify anything.


Consistency justifies our existence. I would say. We are ourself hypothetical with comp. 
We are divine hypotheses, somehow. I think you ask too much for a justification.


You are assuming that justification comes from logic; and indeed it is too much to expect 
from such a weak source.  I look for such justification as can be found from experience, 
which you demoted to mere motivation.


I don't think that what you ask is possible, even if I am pretty sure that x + 0 = x, x 
+ s(y) = s(x + y), etc.


I'm not at all sure that there is successor for every x.  My intuition doesn't reach to 
infinity.  It seems like an hypothesis of convenience.


Brent

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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


John,



Allow me please, one more remark:


I allow you an infinity of remarks. But not one more :)


my ID for an axiom is a ground-rule derived to facilitate the  
acceptance of a theory.


Hmm... That is not the standard idea. An axiom is simply an  
hypothesis. Like the hypothesis that there is a moon, or that 0 + x =  
x, etc. It is what we accept to proceed.




I suspect the axioms were invented AFTER the theoretical  
considerations to make them acceptable.


That is true, but they are useful to communicate ideas and beliefs to  
others. When formalized, the axioms and theorems don't depend on the  
many interpretations that they can have. In applied science, we cannot  
use such axiom, and so must do some semi-axiomatization, with implicit  
hypotheses, like the existence of the domain of application, like when  
we send persons or robots to the moon.




They are called axioms because we cannot justify their acceptability.


Yes.




I am not ready to defend this.


Without (semi)-axioms, we remain unclear and non refutable, so we  
can't so easily progress.


Bruno






JM
On Wed, Feb 27, 2013 at 2:40 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:

On 2/27/2013 2:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 26 Feb 2013, at 21:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/26/2013 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


How did number arise? We don't know that, but we can show that if  
we don't assume them, or equivalent (basically anything Turing  
Universal), then we cannot derive them.


I'm not sure how you mean that?


I meant that you cannot build a theory, simpler than arithmetic in  
appearance, from which you can derive the existence of the numbers.  
All theories which want talk about the numbers have to be turing  
universal.
So I meant this in the concrete sense that if you write your  
axioms, and want talk about numbers, you need to postulate them, or  
equivalent. You can derive the numbers from the equational theory:


Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

+ few equality rules,

But that theory is already Turing universal, and assume as much the  
number than elementary arithmetic.





We know that we experience individual objects and so we can count  
them by putting them in one-to-one relation with fingers or  
notches or marks.  So what are you calling an assumption in this?


A theory is supposed to abstract from the experiences. The  
experiences motivates the theory, but does not justify it logically.


But justify logically seems like a bizarre concept to me.  We just  
make up rules of logic so that inferences from some axioms, which we  
also make up, preserve 'true'.  To say that it is justified  
logically seems to mean no more than we have avoided inconsistency  
insofar as we know.  Sure it's important that our model of the  
world not have inconsistencies (at least if our rules of inference  
include ex contradictione sequitur quodlibet) but mere consistency  
doesn't justify anything.


Brent

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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Tim Maudlin

2013-02-27 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/27/2013 9:14 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 27 Feb 2013, at 13:58, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 2/27/2013 5:18 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

[SPK] Are subsets of the UD equivalent to a Boolean Algebra?


The UD is not a set.


Dear Bruno,

   Why are you such a literalist?


Don't use technical terms, in that case.


Don't be such a hidebound stiff!




 Are the strings that make up the UD equivalent to a Boolean algebra?


The UD is one program. It is one string. And UD* is an infinitely 
complex structure, roughly equivalent to sigma_1 truth, and structured 
from inside by the 8 hypostases, none being boolean.




The UD is not an infinite number of Turing machine algorithms 
dovetailed together? There is no relation between a Turing Machine and a 
Boolean Algebra? I suspect that you know the relation but are not 
willing to discuss it! I think that you are evading my question!




Bruno 



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Onward!

Stephen


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Re: Tim Maudlin

2013-02-27 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/27/2013 9:14 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
The UD is one program. It is one string. And UD* is an infinitely 
complex structure, roughly equivalent to sigma_1 truth, and structured 
from inside by the 8 hypostases, none being boolean.

Hi Bruno,

Sigma_1 logic is more powerful than Boolean algebras, but this does 
not allow Sigma_N logics to escape from the necessity of satisfiability.


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Onward!

Stephen


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