Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Douglas Laycock


To clarify Chris's point just a bit:  In Iqbal, plaintiff argued that he was 
mistreated because he was a Muslim.  The government said it had nothing against 
Muslims; it was jailing people suspected of terrorism, and unfortunately, that 
group is disporportionately Muslim.  So the parties set it up as in effect a 
choice between disparate treatment and disparate impact.  Given that context, 
the citation to Washington v. Davis makes sense, and thinking of free exercise 
in the same terms also makes sense.  This puts some meat on the bones of 
Chris's original textual analysis that the sentence is written in the 
conditional. 

The sentence still has bad potential to be misread when taken out of context.  

Quoting Christopher Lund :

> That makes sense and does a lot to explain it.  Although I'm still 
> then a little confused by the opinion.  I mean if we agree that (1) 
> Free Exercise violations do not require a showing of bad motive (just 
> a lack of general applicability), and (2) Bivens liability does not 
> require a showing of bad motive (just a violation of clearly 
> established law) * then why does the Court suggest that a plaintiff 
> must show bad motive to get Bivens liability premised on an FEC 
> violation?
>
> To put it another way, why can't one premise a Bivens claim on a pure 
> failure of general applicability (without any finding of bad motive)? 
>   I mean, it's possible to imagine a law that is passed with good 
> motives, but so obviously fails the general applicability requirement 
> that it is contrary to clearly established law (i.e., Lukumi).  As a 
> result, officials acting under such a law would have their qualified 
> immunity overcome, and thus be liable for damages under Bivens (or 
> Section 1983).  Iqbal seems to reject this, buy why?
>
> Based on what everyone has been saying, I'm now thinking that all 
> this is interesting, but probably way beyond what the Court intended 
> to say or suggest.  Maybe Iqbal says what it says about Free Exercise 
> simply because the plaintiffs in Iqbal were alleging intentional 
> religious discrimination of an obvious and flagrant kind.  The Court 
> simply isn't thinking about general applicability, and doesn't mean 
> to say or change anything about it.
>
> Oh and finally, I think Art Spitzer earlier asked for an example of a 
> law that was neutral, but not generally applicable.  A good example 
> is FOP v. Newark (which Professor Lupu alludes to below). The 
> citation is 170 F.3d 359 (3d Cir. 1999), and it's written by 
> then-Judge Alito.  I think we've discussed it on this listserv a 
> couple times before.  The case finds a police department's policy not 
> generally applicable.  I don't think it says anything about motive 
> one way or the other * the point is that the lack of general 
> applicability makes motive irrelevant.
>
> Best,
> Chris
>
> __
> Christopher C. Lund
> Assistant Professor of Law
> Mississippi College School of Law
> 151 E. Griffith St.
> Jackson, MS  39201
> (601) 925-7141 (office)
> (601) 925-7113 (fax)
> Papers: http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=363402[1]
>
 icl...@law.gwu.edu 5/27/2009 1:44 PM >>>
>
> Doesn't Iqbal's context of a Bivens action for damages against public 
> officials help explain this statement?  The issue is not just whether 
> a government policy might violate the Free Exercise Clause(think the 
> "no beards" rule in FOP v. Newark), but whether the defendant public 
> official intentionally violated a known constitutional right.  In 
> that context, one cannot expect to recover damages in a case in which 
> reasonable lawyers and judges will differ about "neutrality" or 
> "general applicability."  In such a case, there may be a violation of 
> the Free Exercise Clause, but not a violation of the sort that will 
> overcome the qualified immunity of officers.
>
>  Original message 
>> Date: Wed, 27 May 2009 12:00:13 -0500
>> From: "Christopher Lund" 
>> Subject: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause
>> To: 
>>
>>   There's this potentially troubling line in the
>>   Supreme Court's recent decision in Ashcroft v. Iqbal
>>   (at least I find it potentially troubling) that I
>>   wanted to raise with you all.  Here's the passage:
>>
>>   "The factors necessary to establish a Bivens
>>   violation will vary with the constitutional
>>   provision at issue. Where the claim is invidious
>>   discrimination in contravention of the First and
>>   Fifth Amendments, our decisions make clear that the
>>   plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant
>>   acted with discriminatory purpose. Church of Lukumi
>>   Babalu Aye, Inc. v. Hialeah, 508 U. S. 520, 540-541
>>   (1993) ( First Amendment ); Washington v. Davis, 426
>>   U. S. 229, 240 (1976) ( Fifth Amendment )."
>>
>>   I am a little distressed by this language and even
>>   more by the back-to-back citations of Washington v.
>>   Davis and Lukumi.  I fear it may tend to suggest
>>  

Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Christopher Lund
That makes sense and does a lot to explain it.  Although I'm still then a 
little confused by the opinion.  I mean if we agree that (1) Free Exercise 
violations do not require a showing of bad motive (just a lack of general 
applicability), and (2) Bivens liability does not require a showing of bad 
motive (just a violation of clearly established law) * then why does the Court 
suggest that a plaintiff must show bad motive to get Bivens liability premised 
on an FEC violation?  
 
To put it another way, why can't one premise a Bivens claim on a pure failure 
of general applicability (without any finding of bad motive)?   I mean, it's 
possible to imagine a law that is passed with good motives, but so obviously 
fails the general applicability requirement that it is contrary to clearly 
established law (i.e., Lukumi).  As a result, officials acting under such a law 
would have their qualified immunity overcome, and thus be liable for damages 
under Bivens (or Section 1983).  Iqbal seems to reject this, buy why?
 
Based on what everyone has been saying, I'm now thinking that all this is 
interesting, but probably way beyond what the Court intended to say or suggest. 
 Maybe Iqbal says what it says about Free Exercise simply because the 
plaintiffs in Iqbal were alleging intentional religious discrimination of an 
obvious and flagrant kind.  The Court simply isn't thinking about general 
applicability, and doesn't mean to say or change anything about it.
 
Oh and finally, I think Art Spitzer earlier asked for an example of a law that 
was neutral, but not generally applicable.  A good example is FOP v. Newark 
(which Professor Lupu alludes to below). The citation is 170 F.3d 359 (3d Cir. 
1999), and it's written by then-Judge Alito.  I think we've discussed it on 
this listserv a couple times before.  The case finds a police department's 
policy not generally applicable.  I don't think it says anything about motive 
one way or the other * the point is that the lack of general applicability 
makes motive irrelevant. 
 
Best,
Chris
 
__
Christopher C. Lund
Assistant Professor of Law
Mississippi College School of Law
151 E. Griffith St.
Jackson, MS  39201
(601) 925-7141 (office)
(601) 925-7113 (fax)
Papers: http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=363402 

>>> icl...@law.gwu.edu 5/27/2009 1:44 PM >>>

Doesn't Iqbal's context of a Bivens action for damages against public officials 
help explain this statement?  The issue is not just whether a government policy 
might violate the Free Exercise Clause(think the "no beards" rule in FOP v. 
Newark), but whether the defendant public official intentionally violated a 
known constitutional right.  In that context, one cannot expect to recover 
damages in a case in which reasonable lawyers and judges will differ about 
"neutrality" or "general applicability."  In such a case, there may be a 
violation of the Free Exercise Clause, but not a violation of the sort that 
will overcome the qualified immunity of officers. 

 Original message 
>Date: Wed, 27 May 2009 12:00:13 -0500
>From: "Christopher Lund"   
>Subject: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause  
>To: 
>
>   There's this potentially troubling line in the
>   Supreme Court's recent decision in Ashcroft v. Iqbal
>   (at least I find it potentially troubling) that I
>   wanted to raise with you all.  Here's the passage:
>
>   "The factors necessary to establish a Bivens
>   violation will vary with the constitutional
>   provision at issue. Where the claim is invidious
>   discrimination in contravention of the First and
>   Fifth Amendments, our decisions make clear that the
>   plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant
>   acted with discriminatory purpose. Church of Lukumi
>   Babalu Aye, Inc. v. Hialeah, 508 U. S. 520, 540-541
>   (1993) ( First Amendment ); Washington v. Davis, 426
>   U. S. 229, 240 (1976) ( Fifth Amendment )."
>
>   I am a little distressed by this language and even
>   more by the back-to-back citations of Washington v.
>   Davis and Lukumi.  I fear it may tend to suggest
>   that the Free Exercise Clause now only guards
>   against intentional discrimination. 
>
>   I'd read this language another way.  I'd read it to
>   say that when a plaintiff argues a violation of
>   neutrality ("where the claim is invidious
>   discrimination"), he must plead and prove it with
>   the requisite detail ("the plaintiff must plead and
>   prove that the defendant acted with discriminatory
>   purpose").  But a plaintiff can go another route
>   altogether.  He can argue that the law is not
>   generally applicable, and thus avoid all inquiries
>   about discriminatory purpose.  Under my reading,
>   nothing in Iqbal speaks to the general applicability
>   requirement. 
>
>   I think my reading is the most plausible one.  But
>   it may be that I am being unduly influenced by
>   my attraction to a strong substantive conception of
>   Free Exe

Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Ira (Chip) Lupu
Doesn't Iqbal's context of a Bivens action for damages against public officials 
help explain this statement?  The issue is not just whether a government policy 
might violate the Free Exercise Clause(think the "no beards" rule in FOP v. 
Newark), but whether the defendant public official intentionally violated a 
known constitutional right.  In that context, one cannot expect to recover 
damages in a case in which reasonable lawyers and judges will differ about 
"neutrality" or "general applicability."  In such a case, there may be a 
violation of the Free Exercise Clause, but not a violation of the sort that 
will overcome the qualified immunity of officers. 

 Original message 
>Date: Wed, 27 May 2009 12:00:13 -0500
>From: "Christopher Lund"   
>Subject: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause  
>To: 
>
>   There's this potentially troubling line in the
>   Supreme Court's recent decision in Ashcroft v. Iqbal
>   (at least I find it potentially troubling) that I
>   wanted to raise with you all.  Here's the passage:
>
>   "The factors necessary to establish a Bivens
>   violation will vary with the constitutional
>   provision at issue. Where the claim is invidious
>   discrimination in contravention of the First and
>   Fifth Amendments, our decisions make clear that the
>   plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant
>   acted with discriminatory purpose. Church of Lukumi
>   Babalu Aye, Inc. v. Hialeah, 508 U. S. 520, 540-541
>   (1993) ( First Amendment ); Washington v. Davis, 426
>   U. S. 229, 240 (1976) ( Fifth Amendment )."
>
>   I am a little distressed by this language and even
>   more by the back-to-back citations of Washington v.
>   Davis and Lukumi.  I fear it may tend to suggest
>   that the Free Exercise Clause now only guards
>   against intentional discrimination. 
>
>   I'd read this language another way.  I'd read it to
>   say that when a plaintiff argues a violation of
>   neutrality ("where the claim is invidious
>   discrimination"), he must plead and prove it with
>   the requisite detail ("the plaintiff must plead and
>   prove that the defendant acted with discriminatory
>   purpose").  But a plaintiff can go another route
>   altogether.  He can argue that the law is not
>   generally applicable, and thus avoid all inquiries
>   about discriminatory purpose.  Under my reading,
>   nothing in Iqbal speaks to the general applicability
>   requirement. 
>
>   I think my reading is the most plausible one.  But
>   it may be that I am being unduly influenced by
>   my attraction to a strong substantive conception of
>   Free Exercise.  So I'd be interested in what other
>   people think.
>
>   P.S.  In my defense, surely the Court did not mean
>   to change the Free Exercise Clause standard in a
>   case about pleading standards, right?  Although
>   maybe this is meaningful as an inadvertent
>   disclosure about where the Free Exercise Clause is
>   going.  (Also note that Justice Alito, who wrote the
>   Newark opinion while on the Third Circuit, joined
>   this opinion.)
>
>
>
>   __
>   Christopher C. Lund
>   Assistant Professor of Law
>   Mississippi College School of Law
>   151 E. Griffith St.
>   Jackson, MS  39201
>   (601) 925-7141 (office)
>   (601) 925-7113 (fax)
>   Papers:
>   http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=363402
>
>___
>To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
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>
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> Anyone can subscribe to the list and read messages that are posted; people 
>can read the Web archives; and list members can (rightly or wrongly) forward 
>the messages to others.
Ira C. Lupu
F. Elwood & Eleanor Davis Professor of Law
George Washington University Law School
2000 H St., NW 
Washington, DC 20052
(202)994-7053
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RE: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Douglas Laycock


Kennedy wrote Iqbal, and this sentence may well reflect his understanding of 
Smith and Lukumi.  But as Chris Lund noted, what he cites in the Lukumi opinion 
is two pages on motive that only got two votes.  Nine voted to strike the 
ordinances down, but only two relied on evidence of motive.  An aggressive 
statement about Lukumi, supported by a citation to those two pages, reads as a 
statement about what those two pages mean, but expressly not a statement about 
what the rest of the opinion means -- the part that had the support of the 
Court. 

Quoting "Brownstein, Alan" :

> Good question. There is certainly some range of opinions on whether a 
> law that requires a lot of individualized applications or exceptions 
> is sufficiently general for Smith purposes.  Also, legislative 
> accommodations of religion that do not reach all faiths may not be 
> intentionally discriminatory.  I also think it is possible to be 
> perceived as creating a "religious gerrymander" without deliberately 
> intending to do so.
>
> Alan Brownstein
>
> From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
> [mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of 
> artspit...@aol.com
> Sent: Wednesday, May 27, 2009 10:33 AM
> To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
> Subject: Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause
>
> When would a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable not 
> also be intentionally discriminatory?  Can a legislature negligently 
> or unknowingly enact a law that's not neutral or not generally 
> applicable?
>
> Art Spitzer
>
>
> **
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>

Douglas Laycock
Yale Kamisar Collegiate Professor of Law
University of Michigan Law School
625 S. State St.
Ann Arbor, MI  48109-1215
  734-647-9713

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RE: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Marc Stern
if the standard is the that legislature knows what it is doing, nothing
will ever  be  unconstitutional.
Marc



From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Brownstein,
Alan
Sent: Wednesday, May 27, 2009 1:51 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause



Good question. There is certainly some range of opinions on whether a
law that requires a lot of individualized applications or exceptions is
sufficiently general for Smith purposes.  Also, legislative
accommodations of religion that do not reach all faiths may not be
intentionally discriminatory.  I also think it is possible to be
perceived as creating a "religious gerrymander" without deliberately
intending to do so. 

 

Alan Brownstein 

 

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of
artspit...@aol.com
Sent: Wednesday, May 27, 2009 10:33 AM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

 

When would a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable not also
be intentionally discriminatory?  Can a legislature negligently or
unknowingly enact a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable?

Art Spitzer


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Now!
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=http:%2F%2Fad.doubleclick.net%2Fclk%3B215225819%3B37274678%3Bs%3Fhttp:%
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RE: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Brownstein, Alan
Good question. There is certainly some range of opinions on whether a law that 
requires a lot of individualized applications or exceptions is sufficiently 
general for Smith purposes.  Also, legislative accommodations of religion that 
do not reach all faiths may not be intentionally discriminatory.  I also think 
it is possible to be perceived as creating a "religious gerrymander" without 
deliberately intending to do so.

Alan Brownstein

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of artspit...@aol.com
Sent: Wednesday, May 27, 2009 10:33 AM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

When would a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable not also be 
intentionally discriminatory?  Can a legislature negligently or unknowingly 
enact a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable?

Art Spitzer


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Re: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread ArtSpitzer
When would a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable not also be 
intentionally discriminatory?   Can a legislature negligently or 
unknowingly enact a law that's not neutral or not generally applicable?

Art Spitzer


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RE: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Brownstein, Alan
I think the alternative reading that Chris offers is the appropriate way to 
understand this language. I don't think this language precludes an argument 
that a law is not neutral or generally applicable without proving 
discriminatory purpose. I actually thought this language was a plus for free 
exercise claims. As I recollect in Lukumi, Kennedy could not get a majority to 
agree that it was permissible to inquire into legislative motive to challenge 
Hialeah's ordinance. By juxtaposing Lukumi and Washington v. Davis, the Court 
gives litigators a bit more of an argument that direct inquiries into 
legislative motive might be as permissible in free exercise cases as they are 
in equal protection cases.
Alan Brownstein



From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Christopher Lund
Sent: Wednesday, May 27, 2009 10:00 AM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

There's this potentially troubling line in the Supreme Court's recent decision 
in Ashcroft v. Iqbal (at least I find it potentially troubling) that I wanted 
to raise with you all.  Here's the passage:

"The factors necessary to establish a Bivens violation will vary with the 
constitutional provision at issue. Where the claim is invidious discrimination 
in contravention of the First and Fifth Amendments, our decisions make clear 
that the plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant acted with 
discriminatory purpose. Church of Lukumi Babalu Aye, Inc. v. Hialeah, 508 U. S. 
520, 540-541 (1993) ( First Amendment ); Washington v. Davis, 426 U. S. 229, 
240 (1976) ( Fifth Amendment )."

I am a little distressed by this language and even more by the back-to-back 
citations of Washington v. Davis and Lukumi.  I fear it may tend to suggest 
that the Free Exercise Clause now only guards against intentional 
discrimination.

I'd read this language another way.  I'd read it to say that when a plaintiff 
argues a violation of neutrality ("where the claim is invidious 
discrimination"), he must plead and prove it with the requisite detail ("the 
plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant acted with discriminatory 
purpose").  But a plaintiff can go another route altogether.  He can argue that 
the law is not generally applicable, and thus avoid all inquiries about 
discriminatory purpose.  Under my reading, nothing in Iqbal speaks to the 
general applicability requirement.

I think my reading is the most plausible one.  But it may be that I am being 
unduly influenced by my attraction to a strong substantive conception of Free 
Exercise.  So I'd be interested in what other people think.

P.S.  In my defense, surely the Court did not mean to change the Free Exercise 
Clause standard in a case about pleading standards, right?  Although maybe this 
is meaningful as an inadvertent disclosure about where the Free Exercise Clause 
is going.  (Also note that Justice Alito, who wrote the Newark opinion while on 
the Third Circuit, joined this opinion.)



__
Christopher C. Lund
Assistant Professor of Law
Mississippi College School of Law
151 E. Griffith St.
Jackson, MS  39201
(601) 925-7141 (office)
(601) 925-7113 (fax)
Papers: http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=363402
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Iqbal and the Free Exercise Clause

2009-05-27 Thread Christopher Lund
There's this potentially troubling line in the Supreme Court's recent decision 
in Ashcroft v. Iqbal (at least I find it potentially troubling) that I wanted 
to raise with you all.  Here's the passage:
 
"The factors necessary to establish a Bivens violation will vary with the 
constitutional provision at issue. Where the claim is invidious discrimination 
in contravention of the First and Fifth Amendments, our decisions make clear 
that the plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant acted with 
discriminatory purpose. Church of Lukumi Babalu Aye, Inc. v. Hialeah, 508 U. S. 
520, 540*541 (1993) ( First Amendment ); Washington v. Davis, 426 U. S. 229, 
240 (1976) ( Fifth Amendment )."
 
I am a little distressed by this language and even more by the back-to-back 
citations of Washington v. Davis and Lukumi.  I fear it may tend to suggest 
that the Free Exercise Clause now only guards against intentional 
discrimination.  
 
I'd read this language another way.  I'd read it to say that when a plaintiff 
argues a violation of neutrality ("where the claim is invidious 
discrimination"), he must plead and prove it with the requisite detail ("the 
plaintiff must plead and prove that the defendant acted with discriminatory 
purpose").  But a plaintiff can go another route altogether.  He can argue that 
the law is not generally applicable, and thus avoid all inquiries about 
discriminatory purpose.  Under my reading, nothing in Iqbal speaks to the 
general applicability requirement.  
 
I think my reading is the most plausible one.  But it may be that I am being 
unduly influenced by my attraction to a strong substantive conception of Free 
Exercise.  So I'd be interested in what other people think.
 
P.S.  In my defense, surely the Court did not mean to change the Free Exercise 
Clause standard in a case about pleading standards, right?  Although maybe this 
is meaningful as an inadvertent disclosure about where the Free Exercise Clause 
is going.  (Also note that Justice Alito, who wrote the Newark opinion while on 
the Third Circuit, joined this opinion.)
 
 
 
__
Christopher C. Lund
Assistant Professor of Law
Mississippi College School of Law
151 E. Griffith St.
Jackson, MS  39201
(601) 925-7141 (office)
(601) 925-7113 (fax)
Papers: http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=363402
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