delete it from your computer.
-Original Message-
From: Howard C. Berkowitz [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Saturday, July 19, 2003 8:33 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: Question in ABR [7:72624]
At 5:17 PM + 7/19/03, Rajesh Kumar wrote:
Hello all,
If a router has its interfaces
Hello all,
If a router has its interfaces in Area 1 and Area 2 and no Area 0, is it
still considered to be an ABR OR strictly, one of the interfaces has to
be in Area 0 to be an ABR?
Thanks,
Rajesh
Message Posted at:
http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7i=72624t=72624
RFC2328 defines this router to be an ABR. However, there are some
issues with this approach. RFC 3509 defines an alternative behavior
for ABRs. In summary, when the router connects to multiple areas
but not to area 0, the router should not operate as an ABR but
instead should operate as if it
This is from RFC2328:
Backbone routers
A router that has an interface to the backbone area. This
includes all routers that interface to more than one area
(i.e., area border routers). However, backbone routers do
not have to be area border
At 9:05 PM + 7/19/03, bergenpeak wrote:
RFC2328 defines this router to be an ABR. However, there are some
issues with this approach. RFC 3509 defines an alternative behavior
for ABRs. In summary, when the router connects to multiple areas
but not to area 0, the router should not operate as
At 5:17 PM + 7/19/03, Rajesh Kumar wrote:
Hello all,
If a router has its interfaces in Area 1 and Area 2 and no Area 0, is it
still considered to be an ABR OR strictly, one of the interfaces has to
be in Area 0 to be an ABR?
In the present implementation, at least one interface must be in
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