Our internal network has 10 subnets that can be utilitized (10.10.1.x -
10.10.10.x). The router IP address is 10.10.1.1.
When I create a subinterface for 10.10.2.1 what is the metric for the
10.10.2.x subnet to get to the 10.10.1.x subnet?
Being that it is the same router will it be 1 or does ea
If I understand correctly, both networks on the same router..different
subinterfaces. If Im thinking about this correctly, the metric in the
routing table will be 0 because they are both directly connected networks.
Thoughts from anyone else?
-jm
""Jeff Walzer"" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in me
On Mon, 6 Nov 2000, Jeff McCoy wrote:
> If I understand correctly, both networks on the same router..different
> subinterfaces. If Im thinking about this correctly, the metric in the
> routing table will be 0 because they are both directly connected networks.
Yes, AD of 0, Metric of 0.
Brian
>If I understand correctly, both networks on the same router..different
>subinterfaces. If Im thinking about this correctly, the metric in the
>routing table will be 0 because they are both directly connected networks.
>
>Thoughts from anyone else?
>
>-jm
>
>""Jeff Walzer"" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wr
yea..its the routing mechanism that determines the metric...but (correct me
please) dont all routing protocols give a metric of 0 to directly connected
networksand therefore, the metric would be 0 in this situation
regardless of the routing method selected?
""Howard C. Berkowitz"" <[EMAIL PR
On Tue, 7 Nov 2000, Jeff McCoy wrote:
> yea..its the routing mechanism that determines the metric...but (correct me
> please) dont all routing protocols give a metric of 0 to directly connected
> networksand therefore, the metric would be 0 in this situation
> regardless of the routing metho
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Subject: Re: Subinterface question
>Date: Tue, 7 Nov 2000 09:02:39 -0500
>
>yea..its the routing mechanism that determines the metric...but (correct me
>please) dont all routing protocols give a metric of 0 to directly
>connected
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