I've gone to a lot of trouble to add Bayesian adjustment in a spreadsheet
for estimating confidence limits of an individual's true score when the
subject is assessed with a noisy test. I specify the prior belief simply
by stating a best guess of the true score, and its x% likely limits, with
At 1:18 PM -0500 23/4/01, Jon Cryer wrote:
These examples come the closest I have seen to having a known variance.
However, often measuring instruments, such as micrometers, quote their
accuracy as a percentage of the size of the measurement. Thus, if you
don't know the mean you also don't know
I do all my repeated measures analyses with mixed modeling in SAS
these days, but I get called on to help people who use standard
repeated-measures analyses with other stats packages. So here's my
question, which I should know the answer to but I don't!
In a repeated-measures ANOVA, most
The best measure of reliability is the standard error of measurement. It's
really the same as the within-subject standard deviation (SD you expect to
get when retesting a subject many times), but you take out any change in
the mean between trials. For any reasonable sample size and two
Responses to various folks. And to everyone touchy about one-tailed
tests, let me make it quite clear that I am only promoting them as a
way of making a sensible statement about probability. A two-tailed p
value has no real meaning, because no real effects are ever null. A
one-tailed p
, they ain't there. Or did I miss
something? If so, please let me know. And can you let me know of
any simple, and preferably CHEAP or FREE, packages that will do what
I want?
Will
--
Will G Hopkins, PhD FACSM
University of Otago, Dunedin NZ
Sportscience: http://sportsci.org
A New View of Statistics
ample size you would (probably) need to get a
clear-cut effect. I can explain, if anyone is listening...
Will
--
Will G Hopkins, PhD FACSM
University of Otago, Dunedin NZ
Sportscience: http://sportsci.org
A New View of Statistics: http://newstats.org
Sportscience Mail List: http://sportsci.org/
I've been involved in off-list discussion with Duncan Murdoch. At one
stage there I was about to retire in disgrace. But sighs of relief... his
objection is Bayesian. OK. The p value is a device to put in a
publication to communicate something about precision of an estimate of an
effect,
At 4:17 PM -0600 30/1/01, Jay Warner wrote:
A technically correct conclusion is: The sample of 100 has a mu
different than 100. there is a 0.08 prob ability (or 0.02, or
0.008) that this statement is false.
Have I not said the same thing? As p gets small, we are more
confident that the
My response is about regression to the mean generally, which got done
over a little over a week ago.
It occurred to me recently that you could reduce the
regression-to-the-mean effect by using the subjects' least-squares
means to divide them (the subjects) up into quantiles for separate
Here's a response to the two people who have replied to the list
about my query. (Thanks heaps for your input. This list is
wonderful. If it ever loses its institutional support, and noone
else wants to pick it up, I will. I'd run it with listproc, and we
would have moderators to filter
y normal. Of course, if there is no reason to suspect
non-normality of residuals, it's reasonable to use parametrics, even
if the residuals in the small sample look non-normal (because, you
would reason, they look non-normal only because of sampling error).
Comments?
Will
--
Will G Hopkins,
Rich, thanks for those comments. I have a few remarks in reply.
If you have a criterion (reaction time, etc.) where you average dozens
or hundreds of observations to make a point to be analyzed, the
"effect size" is magnified by averaging. That is, if you can change
an average by .01, that
and environmental
contributions to the acquisition of a motor skill. Nature 384, 356-358
Will
--
Will G Hopkins, PhD FACSM
University of Otago, Dunedin NZ
Sportscience: http://sportsci.org
A New View of Statistics: http://newstats.org
Sportscience Mail List: http://sportsci.org/forum
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